Sol. Ans.(a). The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “to hold warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.” It is a collaboration of two organisations - Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. It has been providing independent analysis since 2009. It is not related to IPCC, UNFCC, UNEP and WB. So, option (B), (C) and (D) are not true

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source: https://climateactiontracker.org/about/

Sol. Ans.(b). “The Climate Group” is the Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition and not the International Energy Agency as given in statement 5. So statement 5 should not be part of correct answer. Such option is only option (b).

Source:
https://www.theclimategroup.org/frequently-asked-questions#:~:text=The%20Climate%20Group%20is%20the,holding%20the%20governments%20to%20account.

Sol. Ans.(d). While tropical rainforests are often called the lungs of the Earth, wetlands are described as the kidneys. They are described so as they can absorb large quantities of water, filtering pollutants and helping to prevent floods. Aquatic plants are sinks for heavy metals in aquatic ecosystems, and that different aquatic plant species accumulate variable amounts of different heavy metals. For example, studies have shown that floating plants such as water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes), emergent plants such as cattail (Typha. latifolia), and submerged plants such as Hydrilla verticillata, Ceratophyllum demersum, and Potamogeton malaianus have significant capacities to accumulate heavy metals. They have also become key allies in the fight against climate change, as they can capture CO2 from the atmosphere. Wetlands are still disappearing three times faster than forests. (Option (c) is also pretty close)

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6313464/

Sol. Ans.(b). Check Statement 3 – PM 2.5 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream but not PM 10. So, 3 should not be part of correct answer option. Hence (a) and (c) are ruled out. Out of 2 and 4, it is true that excessive ozone can trigger asthma, whereas proofs for highest level of ozone pollution during inclement weather is not evident. Statement 1 is correct (Please refer to the source given below).

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source 1: https://www.breeze-technologies.de/blog/new-2021-who-air-quality-guideline-limits/

Source 2:
https://www.epa.gov/ground-level-ozone-pollution/health-effects-ozone-pollution#:~:text=Long%2Dterm%20exposure%20to%20ozone,with%20deaths%20from%20respiratory%20causes.

Sol. Ans.(c). Gucchi is known to be one of the most expensive mushrooms, with only 500 gm of it costing up to Rs 18000. What is a mushroom? A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above ground, on soil, or on its food source. So 1 is correct and options (b) and (c) are ruled out. 2 is also correct as Guchchi mushrooms are grown in the Himalayan region after the snowfall • They have a unique flavour and earthy aroma (refer source for more information).

Source : https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/gucchi-wild-mushrooms-from-himalayas-worth-their-weight-in-gold/articleshow/19007096.cms?from=mdr

Sol. Ans.(a). PET (or PETE) is a thermoplastic, not a thermoset plastic. So it cannot be incinerated but will turn into liquid instead. So statement 4 is wrong, and (b) and (c) are ruled out. Also, PET is made into a high-strength textile fibre marketed by some firms. The stiffness of PET fibres makes them highly resistant to deformation, so they impart excellent resistance to wrinkling in fabrics. They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibres such as rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibres while contributing to the ability of the fabric to recover from wrinkling. So 1 is correct, options (b) and (d) are ruled out. PET is the most widely recycled plastic. PET bottles and containers are commonly melted down and spun into fibres for fibrefill or carpets. So 3 is correct.

Source 1 : https://www.britannica.com/science/polyethylene-terephthalate#ref1049366

Source 2 : https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/news/Govt-rules-out-plastic-liquor-bottles/article13994794.ece

Sol. Ans.(a). Easy question. Golden Mahseer is a fish, which is labelled “endangered”. Other three are bird species.

Source : https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/threatened_species/golden_mahseer/

Sol. Ans.(a). This is a question from agriculture. Plants that contribute to nitrogen fixation include the legume family – Fabaceae – with taxa such as clover, soybeans, alfalfa, lupins, peanuts, and rooibos. They contain symbiotic bacteria called Rhizobia within nodules in their root systems, producing nitrogen compounds that help the plant to grow and compete with other plants. When the plant dies, the fixed nitrogen is released, making it available to other plants and this helps to fertilize the soil. The great majority of legumes have this association, but a few genera (e.g., Styphnolobium) do not. In many traditional and organic farming practices, fields are rotated through various types of crops, which usually includes one consisting mainly or entirely of clover or buckwheat (family Polygonaceae), which were often referred to as "green manure.".

Source :
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Category:Nitrogen-fixing_crops#:~:text=Plants%20that%20contribute%20to%20nitrogen,lupins%2C%20peanuts%2C%20and%20rooibos.

Sol. Ans.(a). The “Biorock” technology is an innovative process originally invented in 1976 by Wolf Hilbertz to produce natural building materials in the sea. Biorock materials are the only marine construction material that grow, get stronger with age, and are self-repairing. The technology was called Biorock, because it not only grew hard limestone rock for structural purposes, it greatly increased growth of corals and all marine organisms. Coral reefs are in danger due to global warming, and hence this technology is considered very useful.

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source : https://www.globalcoral.org/biorock-coral-reef-marine-habitat-restoration/

Sol. Ans.(c). “Miyawaki” is a technique pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, that helps build dense, native forests, and can be very useful in mitigating the worst effects of urban heat islands. The approach is supposed to ensure that plant growth is 10 times faster and the resulting plantation is 30 times denser than usual. So, (c) is the correct answer.

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source :
https://www.sei.org/about-sei/press-room/how-the-miyawaki-method-can-transform-indian-cities/#:~:text=The%20method%20involves%20planting%20two,insects%2C%20and%20create%20carbon%20sinks.

Sol. Ans.(d). All other Apps CoWIN, DigiLocker and DIKSHA are built on top of open-source digital platform. That is called the FOSS – Free and Open Source Software, that the government of India has used for many publicly used applications. Aarogya Setu was originally not built that way. It is an Indian COVID–19 "contact tracing, syndromic mapping and self-assessment" digital service, primarily a mobile app, developed by the National Informatics Centre under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. It was made open source later, and the PM announced in July 2021 that it was available to all countries that wanted it. But the question is framed in such a way that marking (b) will be risky, so go with (d). Yes, there’s some confusion in this one!

Source : https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/aarogya-setu-app-is-now-open-source-what-does-it-mean/article31689459.ece

Sol. Ans.(d). Web 3.0 represents the next iteration or phase of the evolution of the web/internet and may prove as disruptive as Web 2.0 was. Web 3.0 is built upon the core concepts of decentralization, openness, and greater user utility.

Decentralization: “No permission is needed from a central authority to post anything on the web, there is no central controlling node, and so no single point of failure...and no ‘kill switch’! This also implies freedom from indiscriminate censorship and surveillance.” This is a core tenet of Web 3.0. In Web 2.0, computers use HTTP in the form of unique web addresses to find information, which is stored at a fixed location, generally on a single server. With Web 3.0, because information would be found based on its content, it could be stored in multiple locations simultaneously and hence be decentralized. This would break down the massive databases currently held by internet giants like Meta and Google and would hand greater control to users. Hence 3 is true.

Bottom-up design: “Instead of code being written and controlled by a small group of experts, it was developed in full view of everyone, encouraging maximum participation and experimentation.”

With Web 3.0, the data generated by disparate and increasingly powerful computing resources, including mobile phones, desktops, appliances, vehicles, and sensors, will be sold by users through decentralized data networks, ensuring that users retain ownership control. Hence 1 is true.

Trustless and permissionless: In addition to decentralization and being based upon open-source software, Web 3.0 will also be trustless (i.e., the network will allow participants to interact directly without going through a trusted intermediary) and permissionless (meaning that anyone can participate without authorization from a governing body). As a result, Web 3.0 applications will run on blockchains or decentralized peer-to-peer networks, or a combination thereof—such decentralized apps are referred to as dApps.

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source : https://www.investopedia.com/web-20-web-30-5208698

Sol. Ans.(d). SaaS applications are often customizable and can be integrated with other business applications, especially across applications from a common software provider obviously we can use them on mobile phones. Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail are based on SaaS forms.

Refer to the source - https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-saas/

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Sol. Ans.(c). A FOBS (Fractional Orbital Bombardment System) is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn. It was once considered a very dangerous system as detecting such missiles would be extremely difficult. It could travel overhead the south pole before hitting its target, for example.

Source - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional_Orbital_Bombardment_System

Sol. Ans.(b). This was a very easy question (a sitter). In quantum computing, a qubit or quantum bit is a basic unit of quantum information—the quantum version of the classic binary bit physically realized with a two-state device.

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qubit

Sol. Ans.(d). All are short-range devices.

CCTV (closed-circuit television) is a TV system in which signals are not publicly distributed but are monitored, primarily for surveillance and security purposes. CCTV relies on strategic placement of cameras and private observation of the camera's input on monitors.

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a technology that uses radio waves to passively identify a tagged object. It is used in several commercial and industrial applications, from tracking items along a supply chain to keeping track of items checked out of a library.

A wireless LAN is a wireless computer network that links two or more devices using wireless communication to form a local area network within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, campus, or office building.

Source - https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Biofilms_and_Human_Implants

Sol. Ans.(d). A biofilm is an assemblage of surface-associated microbial cells that is enclosed in an extracellular polymeric substance matrix. Van Leeuwenhoek, using his simple microscopes, first observed microorganisms on tooth surfaces and can be credited with the discovery of microbial biofilms. These often form on the surfaces of implanted medical devices such as urinary and venous catheters, breast implants, and pacemakers. So, 1 is correct. Biofilms are formed on all types of surfaces existing in food plants ranging from plastic, glass, metal, cement, to wood and food products. So, 2 is also correct. Biofilm structures show maximum resistance to antibiotics in the mature stage. So, 3 is also correct.

Source 1 - https://www.intechopen.com/chapters/70036

Source 2 - https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.4161/viru.23724

Sol. Ans.(c). Probiotics are a mixture of live bacteria and/or yeast that lives in your body. Probiotics are good bacteria that help keep you healthy. So, 1 is correct, options (b) and (c) are ruled out. Many probiotic bacterial strains also produce beta-galactosidase, an enzyme that acts like lactase and can help to break down lactose in the gut. So, 3 is also correct.

Source 1 - https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/articles/14598-probiotics

Source 2 -
https://www.optibacprobiotics.com/professionals/latest-research/general-health/probiotic-supplements-help-lactose-intolerance#:~:text=But%20it's%20also%20the%20action,like%20lactase%20and%20can%20help

Sol. Ans.(b). The Oxford–AstraZeneca COVID-19 vaccine, sold under the brand names Covishield and Vaxzevria among others, is a viral vector vaccine for prevention of COVID-19. So, statement 1 is not correct, only possible option is (b). Three options were ruled out. We can consider this question a Sitter!

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Sol. Ans.(c). Tsunamis occur due to the plate tectonics movements. The incidence of solar flares hitting Earth will not result in tsunamis as they are both just not interlinked. So, statement 2 should not be the part of correct option. Only possible option is (c). This was an easy one if you knew this fact.

( This question was directly covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source - https://www.space.com/solar-flares-effects-classification-formation

Sol. Ans.(a). In 1961, a committee headed by H. N. Sanyal, an Additional Solicitor General for the Government of India, was appointed to examine the application of contempt laws in India. On recommendations of this committee the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. So 1 is correct.

Focus on statement 3. It is wrong, as these two types were defined by the 1971 Act and not the Constitution. So (a) or (b) may be our answer.

Final answer is (a).

Source 1 - https://www.legalserviceindia.com/article/l255-Contempt-of-Court.html

Source 2 - https://www.jagranjosh.com/general-knowledge/explained-power-to-punish-for-contempt-of-court-cannot-be-abridged-by-parliament-sc-1633681057-1

Source 3 - https://indianculture.gov.in/report-committee-contempt-courts-1963

Sol. Ans.(b). A patent attorney is an advocate who practices IP law and may or may not be a patent agent. Further, a patent attorney must be registered with the Bar Council of India as an advocate. An advocate is not eligible to write the Indian patent agent exam if he is not a graduate of a scientific domain. (It is true that corporate lawyers have to surrender their “sanad” and cannot practice as advocates)

The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

So 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

Source 1 -
http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/about/legal-education/#:~:text=The%20Bar%20Council%20of%20India%20visits%20and%20inspects%20Universities%2FLaw,and%20the%20State%20Bar%20Councils.

Source 2 -
https://www.origiin.com/2021/01/22/career-in-ipr-for-advocates/#:~:text=A%20patent%20attorney%20on%20the,graduate%20of%20a%20scientific%20domain.

Sol. Ans.(b). Constitutional Amendment process is as laid down in Article 368 –

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately.
5. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
6. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
7. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
8. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
9. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Now note that since statement 1 is wrong, three options are ruled out. Hence this is a sitter! ( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Sol. Ans.(b). As per the 91^st Amendment Act, the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent. Of the total number of members of the House of the People. Hence, (a) and (d) are ruled out. The constitution of India does not classify any ranks of ministers like Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with independent in charge, Minister of State or Deputy Minister. So, only statement 2 is correct. (In fact, there are only three types of Ministers and no post called “Deputy Minister”). So 1 is incorrect.

( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source: https://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/amend91.pdf

Sol. Ans.(b). The Lok Sabha has only some powers that make it more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.

1. Motions of no confidence against the government can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha, but not in the Rajya Sabha. This is the most crucial difference, as the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
3. The budget is presented in the Lok Sabha by the Finance Minister in the name of the President of India.
4. In matters about non-financial (ordinary) bills, after the bill has been passed by the House where it was originally tabled (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), it is sent to the other house, where it may be kept for a maximum period of 6 months.
5. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing any Bill for Constitutional Amendment (by a majority of the total membership of the House and at least two-thirds majority of the members present and voting).
6. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing a motion for the impeachment of the President (by two-thirds of the membership of the House).
7. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in the impeachment process (initiating and passing a motion for the removal) of the judges of the Supreme Court and the state High Courts (by a majority of the membership of the House and at least two-thirds majority of the members present and voting), who then can be removed by the President of India.
8. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing a resolution declaring war or national emergency (by two-thirds majority) or constitutional emergency (by simple majority) in a state.
9. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or after the declaration of a National Emergency, the Rajya Sabha becomes the sole Parliament. It cannot be dissolved. This is a limitation on the Lok Sabha.

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Sol. Ans.(b). The Anti-defection law received the President's approval on 15 February 1985 and the Act came into effect on 18 March 1985. The law laid out the process for disqualifying an elected member for the remaining term, who defected either by resigning or by defying the party leadership and being absent on a crucial vote. In other word, the anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for leaving one party for another.

Grounds of disqualification

1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
3. As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident.
4. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
5. If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months

However, the law does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Sol. Ans.(d). Article 76 of the constitution mentions that he/she is the highest law officer of India. As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters. He also is the primary lawyer representing Union Government in the Supreme Court of India. The Attorney General, like an Advocate General of a State, is not supposed to be a political appointee, in spirit, but this is not the case in practice.

President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of Supreme Court Judge. Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. There are the following qualifications - He should be an Indian Citizen; He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate; He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.

There is no fixed term for the Attorney General of India. The Constitution mentions no specified tenure of Attorney General. Similarly, the Constitution also does not mention the procedure and ground of his removal.

He can be removed by the President at any time. He can quit by submitting his resignation only to the President. Since he is appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, conventionally he is removed (by President) when the council is dissolved or replaced.

Attorney General of India can attend the meetings of both houses of parliament while not being a member of either.

The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. He is the second law officer of the country, and assists the Attorney General, and is assisted by Additional Solicitors General for India. They can not attend the meetings of parliaments. So, both statements are not true.

Sol. Ans.(c). ‘Mandamus’ means ‘we command’. It is issued by an empowered Court to direct a public authority to perform the legal duties which it has not or refused to perform. It can be issued by the Court against a public official, public corporation, tribunal, inferior court or the government. It cannot be issued against a private individual or body, the President or Governors of States or against a working Chief Justices.

It cannot be issued in the following circumstances - The duty in question is discretionary and not mandatory. For the performance of a non-statutory function. Performance of the duty involves rights of purely private nature. Where such direction involves violation of any law.

Under Article 226 of the Constitution, a Writ of Mandamus can be issued even against a private authority in respect of the public functions being discharged by the said authority. A writ court can by its decision direct a private authority to correct or enforce discharge of public functions. So, 1 is correct.

About issuing mandamus to government companies, the law seems to be in a state of confusion! A few High Courts have thought that the writ could apply even to a government company, but few others have held that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim (a Latin word meaning consecutively).

The writ of Quo Warranto is issued by the courts against a private person when he assumes an office on which he has no right. Quo Warranto literally means ‘by what authority’ and it is an effective measure to prevent people from taking over public offices. A citizen can claim a writ of quo warranto and he stands in the position of a relater. He need not have any special interest or personal interest.

Source 1 : https://www.jstor.org/stable/43950186

Sol. Ans.(b). Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to provide digital health IDs for all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required. A health ID will be issued for every citizen that will also work as their health account. This health account will contain details of every test, every disease, the doctors visited, the medicines taken and the diagnosis. Health ID is free of cost, voluntary. It will help in doing analysis of health data and lead to better planning, budgeting and implementation for health programs.

The other major component of the programme is creating a Healthcare Professionals’ Registry (HPR) and Healthcare Facilities Registry (HFR), allowing easy electronic access to medical professionals and health infrastructure. The HPR will be a comprehensive repository of all healthcare professionals involved in delivering healthcare services across both modern and traditional systems of medicine. The HFR database will have records of all the country’s health facilities. (public and private)

Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).

So, 1 is not correct, only possible option is (b).

Source : https://abdm.gov.in/faq

Sol. Ans.(a). The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the second highest ranking legislative officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India.

The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President). So, 1 is correct.

The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He/She also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. He/She also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman. So, 3 is correct.

1 and 3 are correct – so only possible option is (a).

Sol. Ans.(b). First, the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) - It provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) – It provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.

Source : https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2016/08/02/19/55/Rapid-Financing-Instrument

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Sol. Ans.(c). The NEER (nominal effective exchange rate) is a measure of value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currency. An increase in NEER indicates appreciation of rupee. So, statement 1 is correct.

An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

The NEER is the weighted geometric average of the bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies. The REER is the weighted average of NEER adjusted by the ratio of domestic price to foreign prices. Increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries creates a divergence in NEER and REER. So, 3 is correct.

This was a very tough question, and could have been avoided unless studied thoroughly earlier.

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Sol. Ans.(b). When the inflation is high RBI tries to reduce the liquidity from the market by selling Government securities to the public via open market operations (OMO). So, statement 1 is incorrect. So options (a), (c) and (d) are gone. Answer has to be (b), so this is a Sitter!

Now – “Rupee depreciation” means a decrease in value of Rupee with respect to Dollar. In a free floating exchange rate regime, depreciation takes place when the demand for Dollar is more than the supply. RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market, if rupee rapidly depreciates, to increase the supply of the dollar (and stop the rapid depreciation). So, statement 2 is correct.

When the interest rates in US and EU fall, there will be an inflow of dollars from the Indian market (an effect of “cheap money abroad”), leading to appreciation of the rupee. That will hurt Indian exporters and IT firms (and also NRIs abroad!). To reduce the supply of dollars in the economy, RBI will likely buy dollars from the market. So, statement 3 is also correct.

( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Sol. Ans.(c). Initiative endorsed by G20 together with Paris Club and is an initiative to support low income countries with unsustainable debt. Both statements are correct. Please refer to the source more information.

Source : https://blogs.imf.org/2021/12/02/the-g20-common-framework-for-debt-treatments-must-be-stepped-up/

Sol. Ans.(a). The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowings by way of IIBs. Inflation indexed bonds provides protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. So 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is not. (This question requires a student to know about multiple types of financial instruments thoroughly).

Source : https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=91

Sol. Ans.(b). The issue of “whether FDI-funded e-commerce firms can hold inventory on their own marketplace or not” has seen many policy flip-flops over the years.

India recently tightened the foreign direct investment (FDI) rules for ecommerce to check companies set up by the online marketplaces from trading on their own platform. The rules barred online marketplaces from holding inventory of their own or influencing the price of goods on their platforms. They also prohibited group companies or entities in which marketplaces have control of inventory to sell on their platforms, among other things. (many of these rules have existed for many years)

Under the FDI Policy in India, the Equity/FDI cap on e-commerce activities is set at 100% through the automatic route. However, e-commerce startups and entities should engage only in the Business to Business (B2B) e-commerce and not in the Business to Consumer (B2C) e-commerce. (doing that would actually make no sense for firms like Flipkart or Amazon!)

The FDI Policy allows 100% FDI under the automatic route for the marketplace model of e-commerce activities. However, FDI is not permitted for the inventory-based model of e-commerce activities.

The marketplace-based model of e-commerce means providing an information technology platform by an e-commerce startup or entity on a digital and electronic network, acting as a facilitator between the buyer and the seller.

The inventory-based model of e-commerce means e-commerce activities where the inventory of goods and services is owned by an e-commerce startup or entity and is sold to the consumers directly.

So, statement 1 is not correct, but 2 is correct.

Source :
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/tech-bytes/2021-year-in-review-the-chaos-and-confusion-around-indias-ecommerce-rules/articleshow/88614007.cms?from=mdr

Source : https://cleartax.in/s/fdi-regulations-e-commerce-startups

Sol. Ans.(a). The real sector of the economy consists of enterprises (non-financial corporations), households and nonprofit institutions serving households. The statements 3 and 4 mention the financial corporations, and so they cannot be considered as real sector in the economy.

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Source : https://www.cba.am/Storage/EN/publications/statistics/monetary_stat_manual/sectors.pdf

Sol. Ans.(d). Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, and the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. This question was relevant in context of the Vodafone share transfer and retrospective taxation controversy.

Source :
https://kluwerlawonline.com/journalarticle/Intertax/45.10/TAXI2017057#:~:text=Indirect%20transfers%20refer%20to%20situations,the%20underlying%20assets%20in%20India

Sol. Ans.(a). Capital expenditure is the money spent (by the government or firms) on the development of machinery, equipment, building, technology, health facilities, education, etc. It also includes the expenditure incurred on acquiring fixed assets like land and investments that give profits or dividend in future. You can do capital expenditure by debt financing, or through other methods.

Revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government. Salaries of employees, interest payment on past debt, subsidies, pension, etc. fall under the category of revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. So equity financing cannot be Revenue Expenditure.

So, only 1 is correct.

Source 1 : https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capitalexpenditure.asp#:~:text=Capital%20expenditures%20(CapEx)%20are%20funds,or%20investments%20by%20a%20company

Source 2 : https://www.business-standard.com/about/what-is-capital-expenditure

Sol. Ans.(c). How critical are household savings for government borrowing? - The importance of household savings can be gauged from the fact that a household is the only segment that is the net financial surplus sector in the economy; all other segments, namely public sector, private sector and general government, are in deficit. Also, the share of marketable securities in internal debt stood at 84.4 per cent at end-March 2019, slightly lower than 86.1 per cent at end-March 2018. (Dated securities means long-term G-secs)

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Source 1 : https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/how-critical-are-household-savings-for-government-borrowing/1542170/

Source 2 : https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/Status%20Paper%20on%20Government%20Debt.pdf

Sol. Ans.(b). Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice fields, cattle, animal waste, landfills and biomass burning. Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic nitrous oxide are land-use change, fertilizer production and use and manure application. An excellent question combining environment & ecology, and agriculture.

Source: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF00748940

Sol. Ans.(d). The system of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible. In SRI paddy cultivation, less quantity of seeds - 2 kg / acre is required. Research has shown that intermittent paddy irrigation by SRI or AWD reduced methane emissions by between 22% and 64%.

Under SRI, the process starts with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively. As less irrigation is required, it results in reduced electricity consumption. So, all the three statements are correct.

Source 1 : https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/best-practices/sustainable-agriculture/crop-management/sri-2013-new-method-of-growing-rice

Source 2 : http://sri.ciifad.cornell.edu/index_files/ClimateChangeMitigation.pdf

Sol. Ans.(b). Lake Victoria is in East Africa (Tanzania, Uganda and Bordering on Kenya). Lake Faguibine is a lake in Mali on the southern edge of the Sahara Desert situated 80 km west of Timbuktu and 75 km north of the Niger River to which it is connected by a system of smaller lakes and channels. In years when the height of the annual flood of the river is sufficient, water flows from the river into the lake. Since the Sahel drought of the 1970s and 1980s the lake has been mostly dry. Water has only rarely reached the lake and even when it has done so, the lake has been only partially filled with water. This has caused a partial collapse of the local ecosystem.

Sol. Ans.(c). Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh that is known for its spectacular gorge formed by the river Pennar that cuts through the Erramala hills. This picturesque piece of nature’s architecture has come to be known as the Hidden Grand Canyon of India by travelers who visit it and get bewitched by its beauty. A very specific question on geography.

Sol. Ans.(b). Namcha Barwa is located in the Eastern Himalayas - Arunachal Pradesh. Garhwal Himalayas is in Uttarakhand. Nanda Devi is located in the state of Uttarakhand specifically in the Kumaon Himalayas. Nokrek is located in the state of Meghalaya in the Garo Hills. So only 2 is correct, not 1 and 3.

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Sol. Ans.(a). The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia.

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Sol. Ans.(c). Out of the given options, the bordering countries of Afghanistan are Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan. Note that Kyrgyzstan is not bordering it. That eliminates three options straight (a, b and d). A sitter actually!

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Sol. Ans.(b). Monazite is a primarily reddish-brown phosphate mineral that contains rare-earth elements. Thorium content of monazite is variable and sometimes can be up to 20–30%. Monazite from certain carbonatites or from Bolivian tin ore veins is essentially thorium-free. However, commercial monazite sands typically contain between 6 and 12% thorium oxide. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire eastern coast and Kerala coastal sands in India (that can’t be considered as entire western coastline). So 1 and 2 are true but 3 is not. If 3 is wrong, then three options are ruled out instantly (a, c and d). Also, only state-run Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL) can produce and process monazite, a beach sand mineral containing thorium. The question is almost a sitter.

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Source 1 :
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/no-private-licence-given-for-monazite-production-dae/articleshow/16900031.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

Source 2 : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monazite

Sol. Ans.(c). The longest day for those living north of the Equator is June 21. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the Summer Solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer. A standard question from geography.

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Sol. Ans.(b). Hokera Wetland – Jammu and Kashmir, Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh, Rudrasagar lake – Tripura, Sasthamkotta lake – Kerala. Only two pairs are correct. Now this question required you to actually remember all wetlands and their locations in India!

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Sol. Ans.(b). This is a question from “Ancient and Medieval history”. Dhauli is located in Odisha. Erragudi or Yerragudi is located in Andhra Pradesh. Jaugada is located in Odisha. Kalsi is located in Uttarakhand. Only two pairs are correct. A tough question as it requires you to remember all rock edits of Emperor Ashoka.

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Source 1 : http://www.columbia.edu/itc/ealac/landesman/summer_public_html/week1/maps/ashokamap.html

Source 2 : https://www.worldhistory.org/Edicts_of_Ashoka/

Sol. Ans.(b). Nannuka (c.831−845 CE) was the founder king of the Chandellas.

Jayashakti and Vijayashakti (c. 865−885 CE) Vakpati’s sons Jayashakti (Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija) consolidated the Chandella power. According to a Mahoba inscription, the Chandella territory was named “Jejakabhukti” after Jayashakti. So, Jayashakti also belonged to Chandela Dynasty.

Nagabhatta II (c. 800–833 CE): Nagabhatta II was succeeded by his son Ramabhadra, who ruled briefly, and was succeeded by his son Mihira Bhoja. Nagabhatta II belongs to Pratihara Dynasty.

Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836−885 CE): Grandson of Nagabhatta II, who had a long reign of over 46 years and proved to be the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas. So pair 2 and 4 are not correct.

You were expected to remember the names of all major emperors in major historical dynasties of India. A tough one.

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Sol. Ans.(b). The social classification of Varna was known to the Sangam-era poets. There is mention of Arashar (King) , Vaishiyar (traders) & Velalar (farmers). Brahmins are also mentioned. However, the “4 fold varna classification” had little application to ancient Tamil Society. More relevant basis of classification was Kuti which were clan-based descent groups. Although associated with lineage and hereditary occupations, there were no real restrictions on inter dining and social interactions among Kuti Groups.

Sol. Ans.(a). During the Mughal Dynasty the text was translated into Persian several times, as ordered by Akbar, Jahangir and Darah Shikoh. One of these translations was undertaken by Nizam al-Din Panipati in the late sixteenth century AD. A very precise question, requiring specific knowledge.

Sol. Ans.(a). Ramanujacharya was a Hindu theologian, philosopher, and one of the most important supporter of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition within Hinduism. Ramanujacharya's philosophy became known as vishishtadwaita or qualified non-dualism. According to him, devotion and surrender are important for attaining salvation. An easy way to solve this question was to recall that Ramanuja was a Bhakti-era saint. If that is so, then options (b), (c) and (d) are automatically ruled out.

Source : https://www.britannica.com/biography/Ramanuja

Sol. Ans.(a). A Jyotirlinga or Jyotirlingam, is a devotional representation of the Hindu god Shiva. The word is a Sanskrit compound of jyotis 'radiance' and linga. The Shiva Purana mentions 64 original Jyotirlinga shrines in India, 12 of which are most sacred (the Maha Jyotirlingam) (The Great Jyotirlingas). Somnath is one of them. So, 1 is correct.

The medieval era polymath Al Biruni described Temple's destruction: “In January 1026, Somnath Lingam was smashed, after killing many devotees, and the loot amounted to a huge sum”. So, statement 2 is also correct.

The Pran-pratishtha (installation) of present day Somnath Temple was done by then President of India Dr. Rajendra Prasad. So, 3 is not correct.

Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jyotirlinga

Sol. Ans.(d). The B cells create antibodies. B lymphocytes, also called B cells, create a type of protein called an antibody. The T cells can wipe out infected or cancerous cells. They also direct the immune response by helping B lymphocytes to eliminate invading pathogens. This is a question from Biology (general science), or Science and Technology.

Source :
https://www.mdanderson.org/cancerwise/t-cells--b-cells-and-the-immune-system.h00-159465579.html#:~:text=They%20also%20direct%20the%20immune,as%20toxins%2C%20to%20neutralize%20them

Sol. Ans.(d). Statement 1 is not correct. Naturally occurring nanoparticles can be found in volcanic ash, ocean spray, fine sand and dust, and even biological matter (e.g. viruses). So, (a) and (c) are wrong. Now, statement 2 is correct. Applications of inorganic nanoparticles in the cosmetic industry encompass diverse domains, including lip, nail, hair and skin care, and have seen an upsurge in the last few decades. So only option (d) is possible.

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Source 1 :
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8417693/

Source 2 :
https://sustainable-nano.com/2013/03/25/nanoparticles-are-all-around-us/#:~:text=Naturally%20occurring%20nanoparticles%20can%20be,than%20their%20naturally%20occurring%20counterparts

Sol. Ans.(d). DNA barcoding is a method of species identification using a short section of DNA from a specific gene or genes. DNA barcoding is a widely used molecular-based system, which can identify biological specimens, and is used for the identification of both raw materials and processed food. So, 2 and 3 are correct, and only possible option is (d).

Source 1 : http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.717.1235&rep=rep1&type=pdf

Source 2 : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_barcoding

Sol. Ans.(b). Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain. So, only 2 and 4 are correct.

Sol. Ans.(d). Both the statements are wrong, and their reverse would be right.

High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. So, both statements are not correct.

Source : https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/features/Clouds#:~:text=Low%2C%20thick%20clouds%20primarily%20reflect,the%20surface%20of%20the%20Earth

Sol. Ans.(c). Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda (and not Kenya, as given in question). With over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees fleeing the ongoing civil war, as of early 2017 it was the largest refugee settlement in the world. So, 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

The Dadaab refugee complex has a population of 2,18,873 registered refugees and asylum seekers as at the end of July 2020. Dadaab refugee complex consists of three camps. The first camp was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in 2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived, fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia.

Sol. Ans.(c). The Organization of Turkic States, formerly called the Turkic Council or the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States, is an international organization comprising prominent independent Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan. Our of the given countries 2 (Azerbaijan) and 5 (Uzbekistan) is correct. (If you cannot remember all member names, then in this particular question, try thinking who all were part of the Turkic groups that came into India starting the 11th century – clearly, 1, 2 and 4 were not).

Sol. Ans.(b). The Bhadla Solar Park, Jodhpur, Rajasthan is the largest solar power park not only India but in the world. It spans 14,000 acres. There are over 10 million solar panels at the park, which contribute to an operational capacity of 2245MW. So, 1 is not correct. So (a) and (c) are ruled out. The firm Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has successfully commissioned India’s largest Floating Solar PV plant. Located at NTPC Simhadri in Andhra Pradesh, the 25 MW floating SPV project covers an area of 100 acres. So, 3 is not correct. Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) owns the world’s first airport fully powered by solar energy.

Only possible option is (b).

Source : https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/worlds-largest-solar-park-in-bhadla-india/article37462665.ece

Source :
https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/indias-largest-floating-solar-power-plant-commissioned-in-andhra-pradesh-11631774123853.html

Source : https://www.indiatimes.com/news/india/kochi-airport-more-solar-power-with-floating-solar-plant-532356.html

Sol. Ans.(d). ) Every State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with this Convention. So, 1 is correct. Subject to this Convention, ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. So, 2 is also correct. An “exclusive economic zone,” or “EEZ” is an area of the ocean, generally extending 200 nautical miles (230 miles) beyond a nation’s territorial sea, within which a coastal nation has jurisdiction over both living and nonliving resources. So, 3 is also correct.

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Source : https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/part2.htm

Sol. Ans.(b). The Senkaku Islands dispute, or Diaoyu Islands dispute, is a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan, the Diaoyu Islands in the People's Republic of China (PRC), and Tiaoyutai Islands in the Republic of China (ROC or Taiwan). This is a pretty old question being asked after many years.

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Sol. Ans.(c). The Chinese People's Liberation Army Support Base in Djibouti is a military base operated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army Navy (PLAN), located in Djibouti in the Horn of Africa. Other three are correctly matched. In this variety of questions, you need to know about all four things asked else the question cannot be properly solved.

Sol. Ans.(b). ) Anatolia, also known as Asia Minor, is a large peninsula in Western Asia and the westernmost protrusion of the Asian continent. It constitutes the major part of modern-day Turkey.

Amharas are a Semitic-speaking ethnic group which is indigenous to Ethiopia, traditionally inhabiting parts of the northwest Highlands of Ethiopia, particularly inhabiting the Amhara Region.

Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. (not Spain)

Catalonia is an autonomous community of Spain.

So, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Sol. Ans.(a). In a significant verdict, the Bombay High Court has ruled that wild animals including tiger should be treated as “government property for all purposes”. So, 1 is correct.

THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 - Prohibition of hunting.—No person shall hunt any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV except as provided under section 11 and section 12.

Hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases -

1. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force and subject to the provisions of Chapter IV -

1. the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted: 1[Provided that no wild animal shall be ordered to be killed unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be captured, tranquilized or translocated: Provided further that no such captured animal shall be kept in captivity unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be rehabilitated in the wild and the reasons for the same are recorded in writing.

Explanation - For the purposes of clause (a), the process of capture or translocation, as the case may be, of such animal shall be made in such manner as to cause minimum trauma to the said animal.]

So, 3 is not correct.

Source : https://zeenews.india.com/news/eco-news/treat-wild-animals-as-govt-property-for-all-purposes_769840.html

Sol. Ans.(a). Ants are the world’s best fungus farmers. This is an amazing example of mutualism or symbiosis.

Sol. Ans.(a). Statements 1 and 2 are right, but 3 is not. Tight monetary policy of the US Fed will mean higher interest rates, that will mean capital flight out of India, and consequent effect.

A depreciation of the domestic currency will lead to an increase in the value of foreign currency debts in domestic currency terms. So, a significant depreciation of the local currency would translate into an increase in the local-currency value of outstanding debt. As a consequence, this would lead to a deterioration of the debt-servicing capacity of domestic borrowers. Note that “External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)” is a type of loan in foreign currencies, made by non-resident lenders.

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Sol. Ans.(a). Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala accounts for 98% of total tea production in India. So, correct answer is (a). [there is some confusion in this question due to the wording “generally”, hence other answers are also possible]

Sol. Ans.(b). In India, the various credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI (Securities and Exchanges Board of India) and not the RBI (Reserve Bank of India). So, 1 is not correct, and only possible option is (b), as three options are ruled out.

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Sol. Ans.(b). The Governor of RBI is not the chairman of the Bank Board Bureau (BBB). So, 1 is not correct, and the only possible option is (b)

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Sol. Ans.(c). Convertible bonds tend to offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into common stock. Companies benefit since they can issue debt at lower interest rates than with traditional bond offerings but not all companies offer convertible bonds.

The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. So, both are correct.

Sol. Ans.(d). India is a member of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) and has been the largest borrower of AIIB lending since the time the Bank started its operations.

The SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation) currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan), four Observer States interested in acceding to full membership (Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia) and six “Dialogue Partners”. So 1 and 3 are correct. Only possible option is (d).

Sol. Ans.(c). A recent GDP growth statistics report states that Vietnam is the fastest growing world economy with a growth rate of 7.31% in 2019. It has surpassed the growth rate of other Asian economies including India and China, which stand at 4.5% and 6% CAGR respectively. So, 1 is correct.

Vietnam is unitary, socialist, communist, one-party state. So, 2 is not correct. Only possible option is (c).

Source :
https://locus.sh/resources/bulletin/vietnams-economic-growth/#:~:text=A%20recent%20GDP%20growth%20statistics,%25%20and%206%25%20CAGR%20respectively

Sol. Ans.(d). ) A key role of RBI and other central bank is to conduct monetary policy to achieve price stability (low and stable inflation) and to help manage economic fluctuations. This question was a sitter.

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Sol. Ans.(a). ) A non-fungible token (NFT) is a unique digital asset that represents ownership of real-world items like art, video clips, music, and more. NFTs use the same blockchain technology that powers cryptocurrencies, but they’re not a currency. It cannot be used as a medium for commercial transactions.

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Sol. Ans.(c). Ghatprabha- Karnataka, Gandhi Sagar- Madhya Pradesh, Indira Sagar- Madhya Pradesh, Maithon- Jharkhand. So THREE pairs are NOT correct. This is a tough question because elimination of options is ruled out. You must know all relations to be able to solve it properly.

Sol. Ans.(c). ‘Local Self Government’ was included in the ‘Transferred List’. So, only possible option is (c). A small trick to solve this is to look at all the subjects mentioned – Justice administration, Local self-govt., Land revenue and Police. Other than local self government, the other three are clearly strategic in nature that the British wouldn’t want to delegate to local political units.

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Source :
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Government_of_India_Act_1919#:~:text=In%20each%20such%20province%2C%20control,The%20Provincial%20Councils%20were%20enlarged

Sol. Ans.(b). Fanam was a currency issued in Madras Presidency, now part of Tamil Nadu, India and Travancore State, now part of Kerala, India. It was also in the Ganga Dynasty period. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fanam

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Sol. Ans.(d). Rash Behari Bose (25 May 1886 – 21 January 1945) was an Indian revolutionary leader against the British Raj. He was one of the key organisers of the Ghadar Mutiny and founded the First Indian National Army during World War 2 based on millitarization policy of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was associated with Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).

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Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jogesh_Chandra_Chatterjee

Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barindra_Kumar_Ghosh

Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rash_Behari_Bose

Sol. Ans.(c). Proposals of Cripps Mission were -

1. Setting up of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the freedom to remain with the British Commonwealth or to secede from it. It would also be at liberty to take part in international organisations.
2. A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.
3. Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.
4. The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would be safeguarded by negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British government.
5. In the meantime, until this new constitution came into force, India’s defence would be controlled by the British and the powers of the Governor-General would remain unaltered.
6. Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.

So, both the statements are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(b). The Avadānaśataka or “Century of Noble Deeds (Avadāna)” is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana. So, 3 is not Jaina Text, and hence three options are ruled out. Only possible option is (b). A good question from ancient and medieval India.

Source : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Avadanasataka

Sol. Ans.(c). Āryadeva (3rd century CE) was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Most sources agree that he was from "Siṃhala", which some scholars identify with Sri Lanka.

Dignāga (c. 480 – c. 540 CE) was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic.

Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823 CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.

Only two pairs are matched.

Sol. Ans.(b and d). The first (possible) Mongol invasion took place in the reign of Iltutmish, though Ghenghis Khan returned from the Indus. But later, there were other attacks by Mongols, prior to Jalal-ud-din’s reign. Mongol assault did besiege the city of Delhi during the reign of Ala-ud-din Khilji. So, 2 is correct. Statement 3 is also correct. Hence, no option is correct.

Sol. Ans.(d). The Sayyids claimed their descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They commanded special respect in the Muslim society. Even Timurlane protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion in India, although his policy was one of general slaughter. The Sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah) and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during Delhi sultanate.

Source :
https://books.google.co.in/books?id=nMWSQuf4oSIC&printsec=frontcover&source=gbs_ge_summary_r&cad=0#v=onepage&q=Kulah%20Daran&f=false

Sol. Ans.(b). The first Dutch colony was established in 1602 whereas Gajapati empire ended in 1541. The last ruler was Kakharua Deva. So, 1 cannot be correct. So three options are ruled out instantly.

Alfanso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur sultanate king Adil Shahis with the help of Vijaynagara Empire. So, 2 is correct.

The English East India Company established a factory in Madras in 1639 on land leased from representatives of Vijayanagara Empire called the Nayakas. So, 3 is correct.

Source : https://www.thehindu.com/features/kids/how-madras-came-to-be-376-years-ago/article7561549.ece

Sol. Ans.(d). The Arthashastra states that a man could be a slave either by birth, by voluntarily selling himself, by being captured in war, or as a result of a judicial punishment. Slavery was a recognized institution and the legal relationship between master and slave was clearly defined e.g. if a female slave bore her master a son, not only was she legally free but the child was entitled to legal status of the master’s son. So, all three statements are correct.

Source : https://ncjindalps.com/pdf/HUMANITIES/The%20Kautilya%20Arthashastra%20-%20Chanakya.pdf

Source : http://indiansaga.com/others/slavery.html

Sol. Ans.(c). The Labour Bureau compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs.

Source : http://labourbureaunew.gov.in/UserContent/Statistics_ID_Layoffs_2011.pdf

Sol. Ans.(a). Under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 - Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India. Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of central and state Govt., national and international organization. Collection of Statistics relating to coal washeries.

Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957- Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Under the Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) act, 1972, the Non-coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 and the Coal Mines (Special Provision) Act, 2015. Coal Controller also functions as the Commissioner of Payment to settle the claim cases of colliery owners of pre-nationalisation period under the above acts.

Source : http://www.coalcontroller.gov.in/pages/display/5-functionsresponsibilities

Sol. Ans.(a). The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. This prohibits or restricts the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled tribes in such area.

( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source :
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/fifth-schedule-areas#:~:text=The%20Fifth%20Schedule%20of%20the%20Constitution%20deals%20with%20the%20administration,%2C%20Meghalaya%2C%20Tripura%20and%20Mizoram

Sol. Ans.(b). The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC), launched in June 2015, at Federation of Indian Chamber Commerce and Industry (FICCI), enables and supports safe and sustainable sanitation by bringing multiple organizations on a common platform through a range of catalytic actions. These include supporting the unlocking of WASH financing with focus on the private sector, forging partnerships with allied organizations for leading the discourse on sustainable sanitation; convening, curating and disseminating best practices in the sanitation advocacy — space and providing inputs into the policy aspects of sanitation through participation at allied forums. So it is not funded by either Govt. of India or by WHO. Statement 1 is not correct. The NIUA was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Statement 2 is correct. This is a question from “government schemes”.

Source : http://urbanrivers.niua.org/node/46

Source : https://www.indiasanitationcoalition.org/who-we-are.html

Sol. Ans.(c). The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the country.

( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Sol. Ans.(a). The UN Credentials Committee is part of UNGA and not the UN Security Council as given in question. So, 1 is not correct. There is no mention of meeting it at regular intervals. So, 2 is not correct.

Source : https://www.un.org/en/ga/credentials/credentials.shtml

Sol. Ans.(a). IMO's International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. IMO’s International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).

Source : https://www.imo.org/en/OurWork/Safety/Pages/polar-code.aspx

Sol. Ans.(d). The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organisations and other entities Permanent Observer Status. Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

Source : https://ask.un.org/faq/14519

Sol. Ans.(d). The Tea Board set up under section 4 of the Tea Act 1953 was constituted on 1st April 1954.

Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

Tea Board’s head office is situated in Kolkata.

Source : https://www.teaboard.gov.in/TEABOARDCSM/NA==

Sol. Ans.(a). Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. It is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.

( This question was covered in PT’s Powerpack Course – enquire and enroll here - https://bit.ly/upscias )

Source : https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/greenwashing-is-an-elusive-csr-attempt/1332364/