Sol. Ans.(b) The Jhelum River is a river in the northern Indian subcontinent. It originates at Verinag and flows through the Indian-administered territory of Jammu and Kashmir, into Pakistani-administered Azad Kashmir, then the Pakistani province of Punjab. It flows through Srinagar and Wular Lake before entering Pakistan-administered Kashmir through a deep narrow gorge. Hence statement 1 is true.

Kolleru lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams, and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor irrigation canals. It does not directly feed the lake. So, statement 2 is not true.

Kanwar Lake or Kanwar jheel, as it is locally called, is located 22 km north-west of Begusarai Town in Manjhaul. It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Burhi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga, in the geological past. So, statement 3 is true.

So, only two statements (1 and 3) are correct, but 2 is not correct.

Sol. Ans.(b) Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, is located on the Coromandel Coast, Chennai about 18 km north of Chennai Port. It is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. So, statement 1 is true.

As the largest private port in India, Mundra is a major hub for containers and bulk cargo. It is run by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and began operations in 2001. So, statement 2 is true.

Known as Nhava Sheva, Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) is the largest container port in India and one of the most essential subcontinents harbours on the Western coast. So, statement 3 is not true.

So two statements are correct (1 and 2) but not 3.

Sol. Ans.(b) Teak, Sal, Shisham, Hurra, Mahua, Amla, Semul, Kusum, and Sandalwood etc. are the main species of the moist deciduous forests.

The jackfruit tree is well-suited to tropical lowlands and is widely cultivated throughout tropical regions of the world, including India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and the rainforests of the Philippines, Indonesia, Malaysia, and Australia. It belongs to the ‘evergreen’ family of trees. It is not deciduous.

So, only 2 statements (2 and 3) are true.

Sol. Ans.(a) India has a larger arable land area compared to China. India has the largest cropland of any country at 179.8 million hectares, compared with 167.8 million in the US and 165.2 million in China. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

The percentage of irrigated land in India is about 35%, while it is 40% for China. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is lower than that in China. So, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Sol. Ans.(d) (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves: These are located in the Indian state of Odisha. They are known for their rich mangrove forests and diverse wildlife. However, they are not specifically associated with repeated falls in sea level. Therefore, option (a) is not the best example.

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans: These are situated in Tamil Nadu, India. They are known for their salt production activities and are not directly linked to repeated falls in sea level. Thus, option (b) is not the best example.

(c) Naupada Swamp: Naupada is a village in Santha Bommali mandal of Srikakulam district. It is located near palasa town in Andhra Pradesh. The village is famous for salt fields and is known as “Salt Bowl of Andhra Pradesh”. It is also known for its railway junction station. However, it does not primarily demonstrate repeated falls in sea level. Therefore, option (c) is not the best example.

(d) Rann of Kutch: The Rann of Kutch is a vast salt marsh located in the Thar Desert of Gujarat, India. It is known for its unique ecosystem and is a prime example of repeated falls in sea level. Over time, as the sea level fluctuated, the Rann of Kutch was formed. Consequently, it is the best example among the given options.

Based on the analysis, the correct answer is (d) Rann of Kutch.

Sol. Ans.(d) Ilmenite: Ilmenite is a mineral composed of iron titanium oxide (FeTiO3). It is the primary source of titanium and contains a significant amount of titanium dioxide (TiO2). Ilmenite is widely used in the production of titanium metal, titanium dioxide pigments, and other titanium-based products.

Rutile: Rutile is another mineral composed of titanium dioxide (TiO2). It is also a significant source of titanium and is used in the production of titanium metal and titanium dioxide pigments. Rutile is known for its high refractive index and is often used in the manufacturing of optical elements and ceramics.

Given the information above, we can conclude that ilmenite and rutile are rich sources of titanium. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Titanium.

Sol. Ans.(c) About three-fourths of the world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).

The Democratic Republic of the Congo is a major global producer of cobalt, accounting for approximately 70-75% of the world's cobalt supply. Cobalt is a critical component in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which are extensively used in electric vehicles and various electronic devices.

The DRC's cobalt reserves are significant, and the country's mining operations, particularly in the Katanga region, contribute significantly to the global cobalt supply. The cobalt is primarily extracted as a by-product of copper and nickel mining in the DRC.

Therefore, based on the available information, the correct answer is (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo.

Sol. Ans.(a) The Congo Basin is a vast area located in central Africa and is home to one of the world's largest tropical rainforests.

(a) Cameroon: Yes, Cameroon is a country that includes a significant portion of the Congo Basin. The southern part of Cameroon is part of the Congo Basin and contains a substantial portion of the rainforest.

(b) Nigeria: No, Nigeria is not part of the Congo Basin. It is located more towards the western region of Africa and does not fall within the boundaries of the Congo Basin.

(c) South Sudan: No, South Sudan is not part of the Congo Basin. It is located more towards the eastern region of Africa and does not fall within the boundaries of the Congo Basin.

(d) Uganda: No, Uganda is not part of the Congo Basin. It is located more towards the eastern region of Africa and does not fall within the boundaries of the Congo Basin.

Based on the analysis, the only option that is a part of the Congo Basin is (a) Cameroon. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Cameroon.

Sol. Ans.(d) Statement 1: Amarkantak Hills are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. They are known as the origin of the Narmada River and the Son River. However, they are not situated at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. The Sahyadri Range (also known as the Western Ghats) is located further south along the western coast of India, while the Vindhya Range is a separate range located more towards central India. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The Biligirirangan Hills, also known as BR Hills, are situated in the state of Karnataka, India. They are not part of the Satpura Range, which is located further north in central India. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3: The Seshachalam Hills, also known as Tirumala Hills, are located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India. They are not part of the Western Ghats, which run along the western coast of India. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Based on the analysis of each statement, we find that none of the statements is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) None.

Sol. Ans.(d) Statement 1: The East-West Corridor is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Project, which aims to connect major cities of India through a highway network. However, the East-West Corridor does not connect Dibrugarh and Surat. It runs from Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: The Trilateral Highway is a significant connectivity project that aims to enhance road connectivity between India, Myanmar, and Thailand. It connects Moreh in Manipur, India, with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 3: The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor is a proposed connectivity project that aims to enhance trade and economic cooperation between the four countries. However, it does not connect Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. The BCIM Economic Corridor is intended to link Kolkata in India, Dhaka in Bangladesh, Mandalay in Myanmar, and Kunming in China. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Based on the analysis of each statement, we find that all statements are incorrect.

Sol. Ans.(c) Statement - I: This statement is correct. India does have uranium deposits, and produces about 1.2 per cent of world's uranium. India is in the top 10 producers of Uranium in the world. The total reserves of uranium are estimated at 30,480 tonnes. However, the country relies heavily on coal for electricity production. Around 50% of India’s electricity is produced by coal while less than 2% from nuclear power.

Statement - II: This statement is incorrect. While uranium is indeed used as fuel in nuclear power plants to generate electricity, the enrichment level required is not a fixed value of 60%. The enrichment level of uranium used in nuclear reactors can vary depending on the specific reactor design and requirements. Typically, for commercial nuclear power reactors, the enrichment level of uranium used is around 3-5%. Higher enrichment levels are required for specific purposes like research reactors or the production of certain isotopes, but it is not a requirement for general electricity production.

So Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Sol. Ans.(c) Statement - I: This statement is correct. Marsupials are a specific group of mammals that are primarily found in Australia and nearby regions, such as Papua New Guinea and Indonesia. They are not naturally found in India or other parts of the world outside of their native range.

Statement-II: This statement is incorrect. Marsupials are a diverse group of mammals that have adapted to various habitats, including forests, woodlands, deserts, and grasslands. While some marsupials, like kangaroos, are indeed found in grassland habitats, not all marsupials require montane grasslands or habitats with no predators to thrive. Marsupials have successfully adapted to different ecological niches and can be found in a wide range of environments.

Based on the evaluation of each statement, we find that Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Sol. Ans.(a) The 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (ISSG), which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a global organization dedicated to conserving biodiversity and promoting sustainable use of natural resources. The IUCN is known for its work in assessing the conservation status of species, developing conservation policies, and providing guidance on environmental issues.

The ISSG is a specialist group within the IUCN. It focuses on invasive species, which are non-native species that have been introduced to new ecosystems and have negative impacts on the environment, economy, and/or human health. The ISSG works towards understanding and addressing the challenges posed by invasive species and provides information and resources through the Global Invasive Species Database.

Sol. Ans.(b) Lion-tailed Macaque: The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is a primate species endemic to the Western Ghats of India. They are diurnal animals, which means they are active during the daytime and rest during the night. Therefore, the lion-tailed macaque is not generally nocturnal.

Malabar Civet: The Malabar civet (Viverra civettina) is a critically endangered carnivorous mammal found in the Western Ghats of India. It is known to be primarily nocturnal, meaning it is most active during the nighttime.

Sambar Deer: The sambar deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species found in various habitats across the Indian subcontinent. Sambar deer are known to be nocturnal and crepuscular (which means they are most active during dawn and dusk).

Based on the analysis, we find that two of the listed fauna is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset, which is the Malabar Civet.

Sol. Ans.(c) The organism that performs the waggle dance to indicate the direction and distance to a source of food for their kin is (c) Honeybees.

Honeybees are known for their sophisticated communication system, which includes the waggle dance. The waggle dance is performed by worker bees within the honeybee colony. It is a form of communication used to convey information about the location of food sources, particularly nectar and pollen.

During the waggle dance, a honeybee moves in a figure-eight pattern while vibrating its abdomen and wagging its abdomen from side to side. The angle and duration of the waggle portion of the dance indicate the direction and distance to the food source relative to the position of the sun.

By observing the waggle dance, other worker bees in the colony can gather information about the location of food and adjust their foraging behavior accordingly. This dance is a remarkable example of the complex communication system employed by honeybees.

Sol. Ans.(d) Statement 1 - Some mushrooms have medicinal properties, is correct. Many mushrooms have been used in traditional medicine for their potential medicinal properties. For example, the reishi mushroom (Ganoderma lucidum) is believed to have immune-boosting and antioxidant properties.

Statement 2 - Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties, is correct. Certain mushrooms contain psychoactive compounds, such as psilocybin, which can induce hallucinogenic effects. These mushrooms are commonly known as "magic mushrooms" or "psilocybin mushrooms."

Statement 3 - Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties, is also correct. Some mushrooms produce natural compounds that have insecticidal properties. For instance, acetone extracts of the mushrooms Lactariusfuliginosus Fr., L. fumosus fumosus Peck and L.fumosus.fumosoides (Smith and Hesler) Smith and Hesler were toxic to the corn earworm.

Statement 4 - Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties, this statement is correct. Certain mushrooms have the ability to produce light through a process called bioluminescence. This is exemplified by species like the jack-o'-lantern mushroom (Omphalotus olearius) and the honey mushroom (Armillaria mellea).

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) All four.

Sol. Ans.(a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian squirrels, like most squirrel species, do not build nests by making burrows in the ground or in trees. Instead, they typically build nests called dreys in tree branches using leaves, twigs, and other materials.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Indian squirrels, similar to other squirrel species, store their food in various locations, including tree hollows, crevices, and within their dreys. They do not typically store food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

Statement 3 is correct. Indian palm squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds.

Therefore, only one statement (3) is correct.

Sol. Ans.(c) Statement 1 is correct. Certain microorganisms, known as extremophiles, have the ability to thrive in extreme temperatures, including environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water. For example, certain thermophilic and hyper-thermophilic bacteria can survive and reproduce in hot springs or hydrothermal vents where the water temperature exceeds the boiling point.

Statement 2 is correct. Similarly, there are microorganisms known as psychrophiles that can grow in extremely cold environments (ranging from −20 °C to 20 °C), including those below the freezing point of water. They have adapted to survive in places like polar regions or deep-sea environments where temperatures are consistently cold.

Statement 3 is also correct. Acidophilic microorganisms are capable of thriving in highly acidic conditions. They can be found in acidic environments such as sulfuric acid caves, acidic soils, or acidic hot springs. These are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5.

Sol. Ans.(b) The animal that makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood is (b) Orangutan.

Orangutans are highly intelligent primates known for their tool-making abilities. They have been observed using sticks or twigs as tools to extract insects from tree holes or logs. This behavior is particularly observed during their foraging activities when they are searching for food.

Orangutans are found in the rainforests of Sumatra and Borneo. They have a diverse diet that includes fruits, leaves, bark, and insects. Their tool-making behavior is an adaptation to access food sources that would otherwise be difficult to reach.

Sol. Ans.(b) Aerosols: HFCs can be used as propellants in aerosol products. They help to expel the contents of the aerosol can by creating pressure. Therefore, HFCs can be used in the making of aerosols.

Foam agents: Foam agents are substances used to generate foam, such as in firefighting foams or insulation foams. HFCs can be used as blowing agents to produce foam in certain applications. Therefore, HFCs can be used in the making of foam agents.

Fire retardants: Fire retardants are chemicals applied to materials to reduce their flammability. HFCs are not commonly used as fire retardants. Instead, other substances like halogenated flame retardants are typically employed for this purpose. Therefore, HFCs are not used in the making of fire retardants.

Lubricants: HFCs are not commonly used as lubricants. Lubricants are substances used to reduce friction between two surfaces. While there are various types of lubricants available, HFCs are not typically used in this application. Therefore, HFCs are not used in the making of lubricants.

Based on the analysis, we find that HFCs are used in the making of two of the items mentioned: aerosols and foam agents.

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Sol. Ans.(d) Statement - I: This statement is incorrect. Income tax Act defines business trusts as an Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) or a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) registered under SEBI regulations. A business trust generally operates through Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs). SPVs are formed as companies incorporated in India, in which the Business Trust owns a controlling interest. A unitholder pays tax on the following types of income distributed by a business trust – Interest income received from an SPV, Rental income from assets owned by REITs, Dividend received from shares held in SPVs (taxed only if SPV has opted for concessional tax)

Statement - II: This statement is correct. In an 11 February 2021 statement, the Finance Ministry announced that it would be introducing relevant amendments to the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act (SCRA) 1956; the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act 2002; and the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act ('Recovery of Debts Act') 1993. Such amendments aim to augment further funding for the infrastructure and real estate sectors by enabling infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs) and real estate investment trusts (REITs) to easily avail debt financing from investors, including foreign portfolio investors (FPIs). With InvITs and REITs now recognized as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act, lenders to these trusts shall have adequate statutory enforcement options, absence of which was earlier becoming a constraint for bankers to lend directly at trust level.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

Sol. Ans.(a) During the pandemic, central banks around the world took unprecedented measures to ease financial conditions and support the economic recovery, including interest-rate cuts and asset purchases. But after the pandemic was over, with inflation at multi-decade highs in many countries and pressures broadening beyond food and energy prices, policymakers pivoted towards a tighter monetary policy, where central banks in the rich world started to hike rates, followed by their counterparts in emerging economies

Central banks use monetary policy to manage economic fluctuations and achieve price stability, which means that inflation is low and stable. Central banks in many advanced economies set explicit inflation targets. This is done on the basis of the faith that controlling policy interest rates will control consumer prices in the system.

So, statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

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Sol. Ans.(b). Statement I is correct. Carbon markets, also known as emissions trading systems or cap-and-trade systems, are mechanisms designed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. They create a market for buying and selling emissions allowances or credits. By putting a price on carbon emissions, carbon markets incentivize businesses and organizations to reduce their emissions and invest in cleaner technologies. Carbon markets have been implemented in various countries and regions as a means to mitigate climate change and promote sustainable development.

Statement II is correct. Statement II states that carbon markets transfer resources to the state. Carbon markets involve transactions between the private sector and the State. For example, carbon markets can enable trade between developed and developing countries, between different sectors or industries, or between companies and the State Environmental Authorities. Carbon markets can also create opportunities for the private sector to invest in low-carbon projects and benefit from carbon credits. Compliance markets and voluntary markets are the two main types of carbon markets. Compliance markets are made when a policy or regulation by the State is made at the national, regional, or international level. National and international voluntary carbon markets are places where people can buy and sell carbon credits on their own time. Most of the voluntary carbon credits that are available now come from private companies that create carbon projects or from government programmes that are certified by carbon standards and reduce or remove emissions. Demand comes from people who want to make up for their carbon footprints, companies with sustainability goals, and others who want to trade credits at a higher price to make money. So, statement II is correct. But statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

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Sol. Ans.(a). The activity of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that is considered to be part of 'sterilization' is conducting 'Open Market Operations'. ‘Sterilization’ refers to the actions taken by a central bank to offset the impact of its intervention in the foreign exchange market on the domestic money supply. When the central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying or selling foreign currency, it affects the money supply in the domestic economy. To prevent any adverse effects on domestic monetary conditions, the central bank conducts ‘sterilization’ operations. Open Market Operations (OMOs) are one of the monetary policy tools used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the economy. In OMOs, the RBI buys or sells government securities (bonds) in the open market. When the RBI sells government securities, it absorbs excess liquidity from the market, thereby reducing the money supply. This action is a form of sterilization as it helps offset the impact of foreign exchange interventions on the money supply.

The other options mentioned are not directly related to sterilization –

Oversight of settlement and payment systems, (b) is related to ensuring the smooth functioning and stability of payment systems in the country.

Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments, (c) involves managing government debt and cash flows.

Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions, (d) involves overseeing and regulating the activities of non-banking financial institutions operating in the country.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'.

Sol. Ans.(b). Capital markets refer to financial markets where long-term securities, such as stocks and bonds, are bought and sold.

Government Bond Market: Government bonds are long-term debt securities issued by governments to borrow funds from the public. They are typically traded in the bond market, which is part of the capital market. Therefore, the Government Bond Market is included in capital markets.

Call Money Market: The call money market is a segment of the money market where banks and financial institutions lend and borrow funds for very short durations, usually overnight. It deals with short-term funds and is not part of the capital market.

Treasury Bill Market: Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued by governments to raise funds. They are typically traded in the money market, which deals with short-term securities. The Treasury Bill Market is also part of the money market and not the capital market.

Stock Market: The stock market, also known as the equity market or share market, is where shares of publicly traded companies are bought and sold. It is a key component of the capital market as it facilitates the trading of equity securities. Therefore, the Stock Market is included in capital markets.

We find that two of the markets mentioned are included in capital markets, which are the Government Bond Market and the Stock Market.

Sol. Ans.(b) The concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field' refers to the practice where many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations. This concept aims to improve the efficiency and productivity of small-scale farming by pooling resources and efforts.

The Small Farmer Large Field (SFLF) model was piloted in two villages of Odisha, an eastern Indian state, with 112 farmers who organized themselves into groups and synchronized their operations such as nursery bed management, transplanting, and harvesting collectively to achieve economies of scale. The SFLF farmers also purchased inputs (seed and fertilizer) and sold paddy as a group to increase their bargaining power in price negotiations. The results from this pilot study showed that the participating farmers almost doubled their profits.

The SFLF concept was adapted from the Large Field Model (LFM) of Vietnam, which was also based on the principles of aggregation and achieving economies of scale, through strengthening backward and forward integration along the supply chain and lowering costs by synchronizing key agricultural operations from field preparation to harvest.

The other options do not accurately describe the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field':

Option (a) describes resettlement of people uprooted from their countries, which is unrelated to the concept.

Option (c) describes a contract farming arrangement where farmers surrender their land to a corporate body, which is a different concept.

Option (d) describes a company extending loans, knowledge, and inputs to small farmers for commercial production, which is also unrelated to the concept.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations. Ans.(b).

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Sol. Ans.(c) The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a price set by the government to ensure a minimum guaranteed price for certain agricultural crops.

Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) is a minor oilseed crop that is grown in India mainly during kharif season (In India, niger is grown on an area of 2.61 lakh ha mainly during kharif. However, in Odisha it is a rabi crop). It is also known as ramtil or karala. Niger seeds have high oil content (37-47%) and protein content (18-24%). The oil is used for cooking, lighting, lubrication and perfume making. The seed cake is used as animal feed and manure. Niger seed oil are also consumed as a condiment by some tribal people. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger.

Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for Cereals (7 - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi), Pulses (5 - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil), Oilseeds (8 - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed), Raw cotton, Raw jute, etc.

Based on the evaluation of each statement, we find that all statements are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) An intangible asset is an identifiable non-monetary asset, without physical substance, held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes.

A tangible asset is an asset that has physical substance. Examples include inventory, a building, rolling stock, manufacturing equipment or machinery, and office furniture. There are two types of tangible assets: inventory and fixed assets.

Brand recognition: Brand recognition refers to the awareness and familiarity that consumers have with a particular brand. It is an intangible asset because it represents the value associated with the brand name, reputation, and customer loyalty. Therefore, asset 1 is an intangible investment.

Inventory: Inventory refers to the goods and materials held by a company for sale or production. Inventory is considered a tangible asset because it consists of physical items that can be touched, held, and physically accounted for. Therefore, asset 2 is not an intangible investment.

Intellectual property: Intellectual property refers to legal rights that are granted to individuals or organizations for their creations or inventions. This includes patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets. Intellectual property is an intangible asset as it represents the legal rights and value associated with these creations. Therefore, asset 3 is an intangible investment.

Mailing list of clients: A mailing list of clients is a collection of contact information for customers or potential customers. It is an intangible asset as it represents the value of the customer relationships and the potential for future sales and marketing activities. Therefore, asset 4 is an intangible investment.

Based on the evaluation of each asset, we find that three out of the four assets are considered intangible investments.

Sol. Ans.(b) The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body that recommends how the central government should share its tax revenues with the states and local bodies.

Horizontal devolution refers to the distribution of funds among the states based on certain criteria such as population, income, area, forest cover, etc.

The 15th FC has made some changes in the horizontal devolution formula compared to the previous FCs. For example, it has reduced the weightage of population based on 1971 census from 17.5% to 15%, and increased the weightage of population based on 2011 census from 10% to 12.5%. It has also introduced a new criterion of demographic performance, which rewards the states that have controlled their population growth. The 15th FC has also increased the share of grants-in-aid for local bodies from 2.5% to 4% of the divisible pool of taxes. These changes have implications for the fiscal autonomy and equity of the states and local bodies in India.

Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as follows -

So, Fifteenth Finance Commission considered three of the above criteria Demographic performance, Forest and ecology, Tax and fiscal efforts, for horizontal tax devolution.

Sol. Ans.(c) The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative was launched in 2015 as a proof of concept to explore innovative ways of financing sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries. The initiative aimed to leverage UNOPS expertise and experience in delivering infrastructure solutions that meet the needs and aspirations of people and communities. S3i seed-funds large-scale affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure projects. It does not focus on mass rapid transport infrastructure. So, we can conclude that the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focuses on: affordable housing, health care, and renewable energy.

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Sol. Ans.(c) 'Due Process of Law' is a legal principle that ensures fair treatment and protection of individuals' rights in the judicial system. The Principle of Due Process of Law was originally adopted by the American Constitution. Its founding fathers stated that the United States Constitution guarantees that the government cannot take away a person's basic rights to "life, liberty or property, without due process of law." For the purpose of safeguarding these rights the Constitution of United States provided power to Judiciary to look into fairness of law. Let's examine each option to determine the correct meaning:

(a) The principle of natural justice: The principle of natural justice refers to the fundamental procedural fairness and unbiased decision-making in legal proceedings. While 'due process of law' shares similarities with the principle of natural justice, it encompasses a broader scope.

(b) The procedure established by law: This option suggests that 'due process of law' refers to the procedures set by law for ensuring fair treatment in legal matters. While procedures are an essential aspect of due process, this option does not capture the full meaning. The difference between “procedure established by law” and “due process of law” is that under the former only the decisions of the executive will be tested by the courts with the touchstone of fairness but under the latter, the courts will examine the fairness of not only the decisions of the executive but also that of a law passed by the legislature.

(c) Fair application of law: Fair application of law implies that the law is applied without bias or discrimination.

(d) Equality before the law: Equality before the law means that all individuals, regardless of their social status or power, are subject to the same legal standards. While this is an important principle, it does not capture the complete essence of due process of law.

The correct answer is (c) Fair application of law.

In summary, while options (a), (b), and (d) are related to aspects of due process, they do not encompass its complete meaning. Option (c) "Fair application of law" best captures the essence of 'Due Process of Law' as it emphasizes the equitable and just application of legal principles and procedures.

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Sol. Ans.(a) The correct answer is (a) Both Statement—I and Statement—II are correct, and Statement—II is the correct explanation for Statement—I. Let's analyze each statement individually:

Statement—I: Prison is a State subject under List-II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments, and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Thus, States have the primary role, responsibility and power to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations. So, statement I is correct.

In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and Section 59 of this Act which deals with the Power to make rules states that the State Government may make rules consistent with this Act with regards to these aspects -

1. defining the act which shall constitute prison-offences;
2. determining the classification of prison-offences into serious and minor offences;
3. fixing the punishments admissible under this Act which shall be awardable for commission of prison-offences or classes thereof;
4. declaring the circumstances in which acts constituting both a prison offence and an offence under the Indian Penal Code (Act 45 of 1860) may or may not be dealt with as a prison offence;
5. for the award of marks and the shortening of sentences;
6. regulating the use of arms against any prisoner or body of prisoners in the case of an outbreak or attempt to escape; etc. So, statement II is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) The correct answer is (c) – It defines and limits the powers of government.

Let's analyze each option to understand the purpose of a Constitution:

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws: While a constitution may provide guiding principles and values for the making of laws, this option does not capture the chief purpose of a constitution. The primary function of a constitution goes beyond determining objectives for laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government: While a constitution does establish the framework for political offices and the government structure, this option does not fully capture the chief purpose of a constitution. It is one of the functions but not the primary purpose.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government: This statement best reflects the chief purpose of a constitution. A constitution establishes the powers and functions of different branches of government, such as the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. It sets the boundaries and limitations on their authority to prevent abuse of power and protect individual rights. The constitution serves as the supreme law of the land and acts as a check on the government's power.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security: While a constitution may include provisions and principles to promote social justice, equality, and security, this option does not capture the chief purpose of a constitution. These objectives are important, but they are not the primary purpose of a constitution.

A constitution is a fundamental document that establishes the legal framework for a country. Its primary purpose is to define the powers and functions of the government, outline the rights and freedoms of individuals, and establish the structure and limits of the government's authority. It ensures that the government operates within a set of rules and safeguards the rights of citizens. The constitution also serves as a source of stability, continuity, and legitimacy in a country's governance.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

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Sol. Ans.(b) The correct answer is (b) 42^nd Amendment.

The 42^nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights. Let's understand why this is the correct answer:

The 42^nd Amendment, 1976, was enacted to overcome the judgement of Kesavananda Bharati Case.

Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973 - SC overruled its judgment in the Golaknath case. It upheld the validity of the 24th amendment act and opined that parliament is empowered to take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights. However, such changes should not alter the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution. This concept of “Basic Structure” introduced a big check on the Parliament’s power to amend the constitution, especially Part III (Fundamental Rights).

Golaknath Case, 1967 - It ruled in this that - Fundamental Rights are given a transcendental and immutable position and hence the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of these rights. It opined the constitutional amendment act is also a law under Art 13. Parliament reacted to this judgment by enacting the 24th amendment act which included a provision in Art 368 which declared that Parliament can amend the constitution including the fundamental rights.

42^nd CAA 1976 - Amended Art. 368 (5) - no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament. Article 368 (4) - A Constitutional amendment cannot be questioned in any court on any ground.

1st Amendment - The key objective of the 1st Amendment was to curtail the scope and impact of judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights. The amendment introduced certain restrictions on the right to property, specifically related to land reform measures. It allowed the government to enact laws that imposed reasonable restrictions on the right to property for the implementation of agrarian reforms and social welfare measures. It was not as wide in scope as the later-day 42nd amendment was to be.

The 44^th Amendment, enacted in 1978, aimed to restore some of the democratic rights and provisions that were curtailed during the Emergency. It focused on safeguarding individual rights and protecting against abuse of power, but it was not aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights.

The 86^th Amendment, enacted in 2002, primarily dealt with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha (Lower House of Parliament) and State Legislative Assemblies. It was not aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 42^nd Amendment.

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Sol. Ans.(a) In the given list of organizations/bodies in India, the constitutional bodies are those that are established by the Constitution of India.

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. The present Commission (8th) has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018” Act, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as National Commission for Backward Classes. So, it is a constitutional body.
2. The National Human Rights Commission: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is not a constitutional body.
3. The National Law Commission: Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. It is not a constitutional body.

Only one of the above, The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.

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Sol. Ans.(d) Article 71 of the Constitution states that Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a president or Vice President.

1. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a president or vice President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme court whose decision shall be final.
2. If the election of a person as President or Vice President is declared void by the Supreme court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.
3. Subject to the provisions of this constitution, Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice President.
4. The election of a person as President or Vice President shall not be called in question on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the electoral college electing him.

Statement 1 is incorrect. If the election of the President of India is declared void, it does not automatically invalidate all acts performed by the President before the decision.

Election for the post of the President of India is not postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. As when an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential election. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

According to Article 111, when a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom Provided that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation to him of a Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money Bill to the Houses with a message requesting that they will reconsider the Bill or any specified provisions thereof and, in particular, will consider the desirability of introducing any such amendments as he may recommend in his message, and when a Bill is so returned, the Houses shall reconsider the Bill accordingly, and if the Bill is passed again by the Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President for assent, the President shall not withhold assent therefrom Procedures in Financial Matters. So, the Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

None of the statements is correct.

Sol. Ans.(a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject a Finance Bill. As per Article 110 of the Constitution of India, a Finance Bill is a Money Bill, and Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Finance Bill, but it does not have the power to amend or reject it. (Whereas a Financial Bill is an ordinary bill as it apart from dealing with money matters also deals with non-money matters.)

Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 109 of the Constitution of India, when a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, it can only make recommendations on the Bill. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with its recommendations, and the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject those recommendations.

Statement 3 is incorrect. As a finance bill is a money bill so no joint sitting of the two houses is allowed with regard to a finance bill under Article 108. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Based on the evaluation of each statement, only one of the above statements is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.

Section 33 of the WLPA passes the authority of the sanctuary to the chief wildlife warden. So, statement 1 is correct.

Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands are privately owned. Thus, people of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. So, statement 3 is correct.

After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people cannot hunt there, nor can they use it for agricultural practices, leave alone jhum cultivation. So, statement 2 is correct and statement 4 is incorrect. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(b) In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression ‘Scheduled Areas’ means ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’. So, statement 1 is correct.

Criteria for declaring any area as a ‘Scheduled Area’ under the Fifth Schedule are - Preponderance of tribal population, Compactness and reasonable size of the area, A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk, Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring Areas. So, statement 2 is also correct.

The Governor of each State having ‘Scheduled Areas’ therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said Areas. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Only two statements 1 and 2 are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) The Supreme Court has held in several judgments (Indra Sawhney and Others v Union of India and Others 1993; M Nagaraj and Others v Union of India and Others 2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,” while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts. So, statement I is correct.

Article 335 - Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. But the Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration” under Article 335. So, statement II is incorrect.

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Sol. Ans.(a) Dhanyakataka located near the present-day Amaravati in Andhra, was the capital of Satavahana kings (1st century BCE - 3rd AD). The Satavahana kings were patrons of Mahayana Buddhism. Remnants of a large Buddhist Mahachaitya built by king Ashoka is located here.

Xuanzang in his travels stayed at Dhanyakataka and studied Abhidharma Pitaka. He gives a glorious description of the monasteries and Buddhist temples there. This area was also a Vajrayana stronghold where Shakyamuni Buddha is said to have given the Kalachakra Tantra teachings. A large number of images of Buddhas and Bodhisattvas such as Avalokitesvara, Manjusri, Cunda, Maitreya, Vajrapani and Heruka have been found from Amaravati dating up to the 11th century CE, showing the widespread presence of Mahayana Buddhism at this site.

Even though the traditional accounts of the Buddha's visit to Andhra Pradesh are discounted, the literary evidence, as recorded by the Chinese traveller Hiuen-Tsang, shows that Buddhism entered Andhradesa by circa 400 B.C. It was only during the reign of Asoka that the Buddhist establishment at Dhanyakataka (today's Dharanikota) attained great recognition. Dhanyakataka grew as the focal point of Buddhism in Andhradesa. Its importance grew further when it became the capital of the Satavahanas. The Satavahana expansion over coastal Andhra and the shift of the capital to Dhanyakataka.

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Sol. Ans.(b) The practice of preserving the remains of an important personality below accumulated earth was long in existence. Buddhist art adopted this practice and the structure built over such a site was known as Stupa. So, the Statement 1, “The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin” is incorrect.

According to Buddhist sources, the remains of the Buddha’s body (relics) were divided into eight parts and placed under the stupas. So, statement 2 is correct.

According to A. Cunningham, Maisey and Foucher the Stupas can be classified into five categories: Relic stupas (In which the relics of Buddha and other religious persons are buried like Sanchi), Object stupas (In which the objects belonging to the Buddha or his disciples are buried like Vaishali), Commemorative stupas (Which are built to commemorate events in the life of Buddha and his disciples like Anuradhapura - Sri Lanka), Symbolic stupas (Which are built to symbolise various aspects of Buddhist theology like Leh Stupa and Votive stupas (Which are constructed to commemorate visits or gain spiritual benefits, can be made from metal, stone, glass, etc). So, statement 3 is correct.

Two of the statements given are correct.

Sol. Ans.(b) Muziris (Muchiri), Korkai and Poompuhar were the major ports of Chera, Pandya and Chola dynasties. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(d) Sangam poems are full of warrior ethics. The practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ was one in which a defeated king committed ritual suicide by starving himself to death, accompanied by those who had been close to him during his lifetime. It was believed that the spirit of a warrior who died in battle dwelt in paradise. In Tamil it is called “Vaal Vatakkiruthal”, meaning Facing North with a Sword.

A poem in the Purananuru suggests that the bodies of warriors who did not die in battle were cut with swords before the funerary rites, to simulate death in battle.

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Sol. Ans.(d). Hoysala - The Hoysalas came into the limelight from the beginning of the 11th century. So, 1 is incorrect.

Gahadwala - With the break-up of the Pratihara empire, a number of Rajput states came into existence in north India. The most important of these were the Gahadavalas of Kanauj, the Paramaras of Malwa, and the Chauhans of Ajmer. The Gahadavalas of Kannauj ruled parts of the present-day Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, during 11th and 12th centuries. Their capital was located at Banaras (now Varanasi) in the Gangetic plains, and for a brief period, they also controlled Kannauj. So, 2 is incorrect.

Kakatiya - The sub-feudatories of the Rashtrakutas emerged themselves as independent kings and founded the Kakatiya dynasty around 950 AD and this kingdom became a strong and united whole of Telugu-speaking lands and lasted for more than three centuries and a half. So, 3 is incorrect.

Yadava - In the last quarter of the 12th century AD the Yadavas of Devagiri came into prominence. They had previously been ruling over Seunadesha (Khandesh) as feudatories of the Chalukyas of Kalyani. so, 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer (d), as all the dynasties are of after eight century AD. None of the above is true.

Sol. Ans.(c). Devi-Chandraguptam or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama written by Vishakhadeva. It is a play about the early life of Chandragupta II. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Hammira-mahakavya was written by Nayacandra Suri. It is among the latest important works of Sanskrit literature. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Milindapanha (1st century BCE–1st century CE), which consists of a dialogue on various philosophical issues between king Milinda (Indo-Greek Menander) and the monk Nagasena (also known as Nagarjuna.). So, pair 3 is correctly matched.

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Nitivakyamrita (the nectar of the Niti - lessons) was written by the Jain writer Somadeva Suri of tenth century AD. It is a treatise on Niti. So, pair 4 is correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(b) The correct answer is (b) Jainism.

Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that originated around the 6th century BCE. It is known for its emphasis on non-violence (ahimsa), truth (satya), non-stealing (asteya), non-possessiveness (aparigraha), and respect for all forms of life.

The statement mentioned in the question reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism, which is the concept of "jiva" or soul. According to Jainism, souls (jivas) are not only present in animal and plant life but also in other natural objects such as rocks, running water, and various inanimate entities. Jains believe that every living being, regardless of its form or size, possesses a soul.

As Jainism placed great emphasis on non-violence, strict observers of the faith wear a muslin cloth around their mouth and nose so that they would not inhale small insects even by mistake. To avoid trampling on ants and other insects, Jain monks used feathers to sweep the path before walking. Jains could not practise agriculture or other crafts that involve killing or injury to living organisms.

This belief in the presence of souls in all natural objects, including non-living things, distinguishes Jainism from other religious sects. Buddhism, another major ancient religion of India, does not hold the same view. Buddhism generally does not attribute souls to inanimate objects but focuses on the concept of "anatta" or non-self.

On the other hand, Shaivism and Vaishnavism are sects within Hinduism. While these sects acknowledge the presence of divine consciousness in the universe, they do not necessarily attribute souls to non-living objects as a core belief.

Therefore, based on the given statement, the correct answer is (b) Jainism.

Sol. Ans.(a) Deva Raya I (reigned 1406–1422 CE), in 1410 constructed a dam across the Tungabhadra so that he could bring the 24-kilometer-long canals into the city to relieve the shortage of water. Nuniz's account details the projects undertaken by Deva Raya I that brought prosperity to the Kingdom. He also built a dam on the river Haridra for irrigation purposes. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(c) The story starts from 1498 AD when Portuguese came to India. In view of the growing Portuguese threat to the Gujarat trade and coastal Areas, the sultan of Gujarat sent an embassy to the Ottoman ruler. In return, the Ottoman ruler expressed a desire to combat the infidels, that is, the Portuguese, who had disturbed the shores of Arabia. From this time on, there was a continuous exchange of embassies and letters between the two countries.

The Turks ousted the Portuguese from the Red Sea, and in 1529, a strong fleet under Sulaiman Rais was dispatched to aid Bahadur Shah, the ruler of Gujarat. Bahadur Shah received it well, and two of the Turkish officials, who were given Indian names, were appointed governors of Surat and Diu, respectively. Of these two, Rumi Khan was later to earn a great name for himself as a master-gunner.

In 1531, after intriguing with local officials, the Portuguese attacked Daman and Diu but the Ottoman commander, Rumi Khan, repulsed the attack. However, the Portuguese built a fort at Chaul lower down the coast.

Before the Gujarat–Turkish alliance could be consolidated, a bigger threat to Gujarat appeared from the side of the Mughals. Humayun attacked Gujarat. In order to meet this threat, Bahadur Shah granted the island of Bassein to the Portuguese (Treaty of Bassein). A defensive-offensive alliance against the Mughals was also concluded, and the Portuguese were allowed to build a fort at Diu. Thus were the Portuguese able to establish their foothold in Gujarat.

Sol. Ans.(d) The correct answer is (d) The Charter Act of 1833.

The Charter Act of 1833, also known as the Government of India Act 1833 or the Saint Helena Act 1833, was an important legislation passed by the British Parliament that brought significant changes to the governance of British India. It is this act that designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India.

To understand the context, let's briefly discuss the other options -

(a) The Regulating Act: The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major legislative enactment by the British Parliament regarding the administration of the East India Company's territories in India. This act did not designate the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India.

(b) The Pitt's India Act: The Pitt's India Act of 1784 was introduced by William Pitt. It brought about important changes in the East India Company's administration. While this act made some reforms, it did not specifically designate the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India.

(c) The Charter Act of 1793: The Charter Act of 1793 was enacted to renew the charter of the East India Company. This act made several provisions regarding the governance and administration of British India but did not designate the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India.

(d) The Charter Act of 1833: The Charter Act of 1833 is the correct answer.

This act was a comprehensive reform measure that aimed to address the issues of the East India Company's administration. It abolished the trading activities of the East India Company, established a central legislative authority in India, and designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India. This act effectively expanded the powers and responsibilities of the Governor General, making the office the highest authority in British India.

The Governor-General of Fort William was hereafter called ‘the Governor - General of India’. Thus, Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India’. A Law Member was appointed to the Governor-General’s Council. T. B. Macaulay was the first Law Member of the Governor- General-in-Council.

The Act categorically stated “that no native of India, nor any natural born subject of His Majesty, should be disabled from holding any place, office, or employment, by reason of his religion, place of birth, descent or colour”. It was this enactment which laid the foundation for the Indianisation of public services.

Therefore, based on the given information, the correct answer is (d) The Charter Act of 1833.

Sol. Ans.(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). JSY is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram scheme (JSSK) (and not under JSY), all pregnant women and infants will get free treatment benefits at public health institutions including zero expenses delivery.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Ans.(b)

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Sol. Ans.(c) The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy –

It aims to strengthen the existing mechanisms and foster newer strategies for tackling Anemia. It focuses on six target beneficiary groups, through six interventions and six institutional mechanisms to achieve the envisaged target under the POSHAN Abhiyan.

So, statement 1 is incorrect. Under Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy a key intervention is to give Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation to children, adolescents and women of reproductive age and pregnant women irrespective of anemia.

Statement 2 is correct. The various behaviour change communication activities of the strategy will address four key behaviours, one of which is promoting practice of delayed cord clamping (by atleast 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) in all health facility deliveries followed by early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.

Statement 3 is correct. Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates - 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme.

Statement 4 is correct. The strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for following non- nutritional causes of anaemia with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Ans.(c)

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Sol. Ans.(a The correct answer is (a) 1 only. Let's evaluate each statement individually -

Statement 1 is correct. Carbon fibres can be defined as fibres with a carbon content of 90% or above. Carbon fibres possess high strength and low weight, making them ideal for use in industries such as automotive and aerospace. They are commonly used to manufacture various components like body panels, chassis, wings, and other structural parts in automobiles and aircraft. Aerospace and automobiles were some of the first industries to adopt carbon fibre. The high modulus of carbon fibre makes it suitable structurally to replace alloys such as aluminium and titanium.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Carbon fibres can be recycled, although the process is relatively complex compared to recycling other materials. There are methods available to recycle carbon fibres, such as mechanical recycling and chemical recycling. In mechanical recycling, the carbon fibre components are broken down into smaller pieces and then reused. Chemical recycling involves breaking down the carbon fibres using solvents or heat to recover the materials for reuse.

Currently, the most common recycling process used to recover carbon fibre from composite waste is pyrolysis, where high heat basically burns off the resin. Solvolysis, which uses a solvent to dissolve the resin, has long been claimed to offer superior properties. However, one of the main challenges to date has been obtaining recycled carbon fibre keeping the same mechanical properties as virgin carbon fibre.

While the recycling process for carbon fibres is still evolving and not as widespread as other materials, it is incorrect to say that carbon fibres cannot be recycled.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and the correct answer is (a) 1 only. Ans.(a)

Sol. Ans.(c) The correct answer is (c) All three.

An accelerometer is a sensor that measures acceleration or changes in velocity. It detects changes in motion and orientation, and based on those measurements, triggers specific actions or functions. Let's evaluate each action:

Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags: In this scenario, an accelerometer is required. Accelerometers can detect the sudden deceleration or change in velocity during a car crash, and this information is used to trigger the deployment of airbags to protect the occupants of the vehicle.

Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive: In this scenario, an accelerometer is required. The accelerometer can sense the sudden change in orientation or acceleration when the laptop is falling, and this information is used to trigger an action to protect the hard drive by immediately turning it off. This helps prevent data loss or damage to the hard drive due to the impact.

Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation between portrait and landscape mode: In this scenario, an accelerometer is required. The accelerometer in a smartphone can detect the change in orientation or tilt of the device, and based on that information, the screen can be adjusted to switch between portrait and landscape mode.

Therefore, in all three actions, the function of an accelerometer is required. The correct answer is (c) All three.

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Sol. Ans.(a) The correct answer is (a) Only one.

Biofilters play an important role in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS) by providing waste treatment and maintaining water quality. Let's evaluate each statement:

Statement 1 is incorrect. While biofilters do help in waste treatment, their primary function is to remove toxic substances such as ammonia and nitrite from the fish waste. They are not specifically designed to remove uneaten fish feed from the water. Uneaten fish feed can contribute to water pollution, but its removal is typically managed through other means such as mechanical filtration or regular cleaning practices.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary functions of biofilters is to convert toxic ammonia (produced from fish waste and uneaten feed) into less harmful nitrate through a process called nitrification. Nitrification is facilitated by beneficial bacteria in the biofilter media that convert ammonia to nitrite and further to nitrate, which is less toxic to fish and can be assimilated by plants or removed through water changes.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish. Their main role is in ammonia and nitrite removal, not the addition or modification of nutrient levels in the water.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Ans.(a)

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Sol. Ans.(a) The correct answer is (a) Only one.

Cepheids - Cepheids are not giant clouds of dust and gas but rather a type of variable star. Cepheids are large, pulsating stars that exhibit periodic changes in brightness. They are used as important distance indicators in astronomy. This pair is incorrect.

Nebulae - Nebulae are not stars that brighten and dim periodically. Nebulae are clouds of dust, hydrogen, helium, and other ionized gases in space. They can be regions of star formation or remnants of supernova explosions. This pair is incorrect.

Pulsars - Pulsars are highly magnetized, rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation. They are formed when massive stars undergo a supernova explosion and their core collapses into a dense neutron star. This pair is correct.

Based on the evaluation above, only one pair, i.e., pair 3, is correctly matched. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Only one.

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Sol. Ans.(d) By their roles in the navigation system, systems can be classified as:

1. There are four core satellite navigation systems, currently GPS (United States), GLONASS (Russian Federation), Beidou (China) and Galileo (European Union)
2. Global Satellite-Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS) such as OmniSTAR and StarFire.
3. Regional SBAS including WAAS (US), EGNOS (EU), MSAS (Japan), GAGAN (India) and SDCM (Russia).
4. Regional Satellite Navigation Systems such as India's NAVIC, and Japan's QZSS.
5. Continental scale Ground Based Augmentation Systems (GBAS) for example the Australian GRAS and the joint US Coast Guard, Canadian Coast Guard, US Army Corps of Engineers and US Department of Transportation National Differential GPS (DGPS) service.
6. Regional scale GBAS such as CORS networks.
7. Local GBAS typified by a single GPS reference station operating Real Time Kinematic (RTK) corrections.

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Sol. Ans.(d) The correct answer is (d), as none of the statements is true.

Strategic missiles are either of the cruise or ballistic type. Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial (boost) phase of flight, after which they follow an arcing trajectory to the target. As gravity pulls the ballistic warhead back to Earth, speeds of several times the speed of sound are reached. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Agni-V and BrahMos are both missile systems developed by India, but their characteristics mentioned in the statement are incorrect. Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) and is not supersonic. On the other hand, BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia. It is not an ICBM but rather a medium-range missile that can travel at supersonic speeds. Statement 2 is incorrect.

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Sol. Ans.(c). Mercury occurs naturally in the earth's crust. It is released into the environment from volcanic activity, weathering of rocks and as a result of human activity. Human activity is the main cause of mercury releases, particularly coal-fired power stations, residential coal burning for heating and cooking, industrial processes, waste incinerators and as a result of mining for mercury, gold and other metals.

Acute or chronic mercury exposure can cause adverse effects during any period of development. Mercury is a highly toxic element; there has no known safe level of exposure. Ideally, neither children nor adults should have any mercury in their bodies because it provides no physiological benefit.

So, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) Statement 1 - A hydrogen internal combustion engine vehicle (HICEV) is a type of hydrogen vehicle using an internal combustion engine. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion by a hydrogen engine (HCE). HCE is an engine that uses hydrogen (H2) as fuel. It is a modified gasoline-powered engine but doesn’t emit any carbon-based pollution, which is a big benefit towards carbon neutrality. So, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 - Hydrogen produced through clean pathways can be injected into natural gas pipelines, and the resulting blends can be used to generate heat and power with lower emissions than using natural gas alone. So, statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 - A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of green hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity. If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Ans.(c)

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Sol. Ans.(a) As you can see in the map, Ukraine borders with seven countries: Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia, and Belarus. Only two of them Romania and Hungary are given in the options.

Sol. Ans.(c) High latitudes still receive a considerable flow of solar energy - the annual insolation value at the pole is about 40 percent of the value at the equator. So, option (a) is incorrect.

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The exact proportion of infrared radiation in insolation can vary depending on multiple factors, such as atmospheric conditions and the position of the sun. So, option (b) is incorrect.

Earth's atmosphere is composed primarily of nitrogen and oxygen. These gases are transparent to incoming solar radiation. They are also transparent to outgoing infrared radiation, which means that they do not absorb or emit solar or infrared radiation. However, there are other gases in Earth's atmosphere that do absorb infrared radiation, known as greenhouse gases.

Water vapour (H2O) – This is the strongest greenhouse gas, and the concentration of this gas is largely controlled by the temperature of the atmosphere. As air becomes warmer, it can hold more moisture or water vapour. When the air becomes saturated (or holds as much moisture as the air can at that temperature), the excess moisture will condense into cloud droplets. And if these droplets are large enough, they will fall as precipitation. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Option (d) is clearly incorrect. Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves in solar radiation. Ans.(c)

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Sol. Ans.(d) The primary soil orders found in tropical rainforests are Oxisols and Ultisols, which are soils rich in iron and aluminum oxides (red colour) but with low natural fertility. So, statement I is incorrect. Only option possible is (d). Ans.(d)

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Sol. Ans.(a) It is true that the temperature difference between continents and oceans is greater during summers than in winters. This is because land heats up and cools down more quickly than water. During the summer, the land heats up more quickly than the ocean, causing a large temperature difference. Conversely, in the winter, the land cools down more quickly than the ocean, but the effect is typically less pronounced than the contrast seen in summer due to the overall lower temperatures.

Land has a lower specific heat capacity than water. This means that it takes less energy to raise the temperature of land than it does to raise the temperature of water. Second, land has a lower thermal conductivity than water. This means that heat is transferred more slowly through land than it is through water.

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Sol. Ans.(c) Two kinds of waves are generated by earthquakes and travel through solid rock.

In P or compressional waves, the vibration of the rock is in the direction of propagation. P waves travel fastest and are the first to arrive from the earthquake. In S or shear waves, rock oscillates perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. In rock, S waves generally travel about 60% the speed of P waves, and the S wave always arrives after the P wave. For example, sound waves are P waves at a high enough frequency to hear with your ear. An example of an S wave is wiggling or shaking a rope which is tied down at one or both ends. Clearly both statements are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(d). In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants employ seawater for a variety of functions, including cooling the condenser system. Seawater is a frequent supply of cooling water for power plants near the coast. It should be noted, however, that not all power plants use seawater; others may rely on freshwater sources. Around two-fifth of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

There are both privately and publicly owned coal-fired thermal power stations in India. 36% of the Installed capacity of coal based power stations in India is under private sector (see table). So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(a). Wolbachia are naturally occurring bacteria found in 60% of all insect species. Wolbachia is safe for humans, animals and the environment. Two independent risk assessments have been conducted, both of which gave an overall risk rating of ‘negligible’ (the lowest possible rating) for the release of mosquitoes with Wolbachia.

The WMP's field teams release male and female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes with Wolbachia over a number of weeks. These mosquitoes then breed with the wild mosquito population. The Wolbachia method is simple. when Aedes aegypti mosquitoes carry Wolbachia - the bacteria compete with viruses like dengue, Zika, chikungunya and yellow fever.

This makes it harder for viruses to reproduce inside the mosquitoes. And the mosquitoes are much less likely to spread viruses from person to person. This means that when Aedes aegypti mosquitoes carry natural Wolbachia bacteria, the transmission of viruses like dengue, Zika, chikungunya and yellow fever is reduced. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(c). Carbon sequestration is described as the technologies designed to tackle global warming by capturing CO2 at power stations, industrial sites or even directly from the air and permanently storing it underground. It describes the long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to either mitigate or defer global warming.

This can be done by following activities -

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively. This method aims to enhance the natural weathering of minerals that can react with CO2 and form stable carbonates. So, statement 1 is correct.
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime. This method involves dissolving limestone or other alkaline minerals in seawater, which can increase the ocean’s capacity to absorb CO2 from the atmosphere. So, statement 2 is correct.
3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
4. Capturing CO2 at emission sources, transporting and then storing or burying it in a suitable deep, underground location. This process is called CCS - Carbon capture and storage (CCS). So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(a) Scientists were able to study DNA from bodies of water and soil to identify the species living there. But now, a more comprehensive application is being sought by sniffing DNA from thin air. This process is called aerial metagenomics.

To understand, let’s understand the traditional techniques used for studying ecosystems. First, it needed a lot of human resources for plant and animal census. Then it used DNA traces left behind in the form of droppings to identify the type of creatures that lived in that habitat. But this was a cumbersome process.

So, then the question was how to study a habitat in one go. This is where the answers lay in metagenomics, which is the study of a collection of genetic material (genomes) from a diverse community of organisms.

Water and soil were used for metagenomics, but the scope has broadened with aerial coming into the picture. Detailed research done in a zoo by the scientists showed positive results when species (like the red squirrel, brown rats, cats) that were not part of the Zoo ecosystem were shown to exist in the aerial metagenomics result. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(a) Microsatellite, as related to genomics, refers to a short segment of DNA, usually one to six or more base pairs in length, that is repeated multiple times in succession at a particular genomic location. These DNA sequences are typically non-coding. The number of repeated segments within a microsatellite sequence often varies among people, which makes them useful as polymorphic markers for studying inheritance patterns in families or for creating a DNA fingerprint from crime scene samples.

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Sol. Ans.(b). As per MSMED 2006, a ‘medium enterprise’, is where the investment in plant and machinery is more than 5 crore rupees but does not exceed 10 crore rupees. So, statement 1 is not correct.

In March 2023, the Government has taken measures for easing access to credit for MSMEs. As reported by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some of the measures taken by RBI for improving flow of credit to MSME sector are as under –

Priority Sector Lending Guidelines: In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed therein qualify for classification under priority sector lending. So, statement 2 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are a form of digital currency issued by a country’s central bank. They are similar to cryptocurrencies, except that their value is fixed by the central bank and equivalent to the country’s fiat currency.

Countries will be able to directly exchange digital currencies in a bilateral way and without going through SWIFT or similar settlement systems. So, statement 1 is correct.

A CBDC is programmable to the point that the currency can be made to expire, thus forcing consumers to use it upto a certain date. For example, The digital yuan is programmable to the point that the currency can be made to expire. So, statement 2 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(d) Beta is a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. It measures the responsiveness of a stock's price to changes in the overall stock market. On comparison of the benchmark index for e.g. NSE Nifty to a particular stock returns, a pattern develops that shows the stock's openness to the market risk. Stocks with a beta above 1 tend to be more volatile than their index, while stocks with lower betas tend to be less volatile.

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Sol. Ans.(b) A self-help group (commonly abbreviated SHG) is a financial intermediary committee usually composed of 12 to 25 local women between the ages of 18 and 50. Most self-help groups are in India, though they can be found in other countries, especially in South Asia and Southeast Asia. The origin of SHGs in India can be traced back to the establishment of the Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) formed by Ila Bhatt in 1972. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Self Help Groups (SHGs) are small groups of poor people. The members of an SHG face similar problems. They help each other, to solve their problems. SHGs promote small savings among their members. The savings are kept with the bank. This is the common fund in the name of the SHG. The SHG gives small loans to its members from its common fund. So, statement 2 is correct.

Both the Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. So, statement 3 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(d) India’s National Health Policy 2017 says “The policy envisages as its goal the attainment of the highest possible level of health and wellbeing for all at all ages, through a preventive and promotive health care orientation in all developmental policies, and universal access to good quality health care services without anyone having to face financial hardship as a consequence. This would be achieved through increasing access, improving quality and lowering the cost of healthcare delivery.

The policy recognizes the pivotal importance of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). An indicative list of time bound quantitative goals aligned to ongoing national efforts as well as the global strategic directions is detailed at the end of this section. So, statement-I is not correct.

Clearly, in India ‘Health’ is a ‘State’ subject. So Statement 2 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(c) According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022,’ India is the largest groundwater user globally with 26% of global groundwater extraction. So, statement-I is correct.

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Statement-II is not correct as most of this ground water is used (nearly 90%) for irrigation. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(a) Article 355 of “Constitution of India, 1947” states, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.” So, Statement 1 is correct.

Article 22(1) states that “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.” So, statement 2 is not correct.

A confession is an explicit admission of guilt from an accused. Evidence extracted from an accused often proves to be substantive as no evidence can supersede an explicit confession from an accused.

According to the ‘Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002’, “Notwithstanding anything in the Code or in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to the provisions of this section, a confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical or electronic device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sound or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person for an offence under this Act or the rules made thereunder.”. So, statement 3 is not correct. Only one statement is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(d) Somalia is the correct answer. This ongoing record drought may have killed as many as 43,000 people last year, and half of them were children under the age of five, according to a report released by the government and United Nations agencies. A total of 6.5 million people in Somalia face acute food insecurity amid the driest conditions in 40 years, following five consecutive failed rainy seasons. Drought is compounding the impacts of other recurrent climate shocks, persistent insecurity and instability. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(c) India had enacted the Biological Diversity Act in 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the Act, 2002) to implement the Nagoya Protocol.

The Act, 2002 is implemented through a three-tier institutional mechanism: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the national level; State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the State Government level; and the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. NBA was constituted in the year 2003. It has its office in Chennai, which is the capital of the coastal state of Tamil Nadu. It is funded by the Union Budget of India. All the 29 states of India have constituted the State Biodiversity Boards.

BMCs have the power to levy fees under Section 41(3) of the Act, 2002 to regulate collection of resources in adherence to the principle of sustainable utilization. These fees form part of the Local Biodiversity Fund created under Section 43 of the Act, 2002. The Fund is used for conservation and promotion of biodiversity.

So, statement 1 and 2 are correct.

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Sol. Ans.(a) As per, Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

The value of each MLA’s vote is determined by dividing the population of the State by the number of MLAs in its legislative Assembly, and the quotient achieved is further divided by 1000. Uttar Pradesh for instance, has the highest vote value for each of its MLAs, at 208. The value of one MLA’s vote in Maharashtra is 175, while that in Arunachal Pradesh is just 8.

So, actually it depends on the ratio of the total population to total number of elective seats. So, statement 2 is incorrect but 4 is correct.

So, only one statements is correct.

The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala where it is 152. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

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Sol. Ans.(a) Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, Walter Elliot and many others conducted systematic and careful excavations at Bhattiprolu, Ghantasala, Amaravati etc. and exposed relic caskets which created much curiosity among Indian scholars about various aspects of these valuable reliquaries.

Sol. Ans.(b) Besnagar is famous for The Heliodorus pillar. An important Prakrit inscription at Besnagar (Bhilsa district, Madhya Pradesh) of the late 2nd century BCE, inscribed at the instance of Heliodorus, a Greek envoy of Antialcidas of Taxila, records his devotion to the Vaishnava Vasudeva sect. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Bhaja Caves is a group of 22 rock cut caves built during the 2nd century BC. This cave is also known as Bhaje caves and is located in Pune district, near Lonavala, Maharashtra. The Caves belong to the Hinayana Buddhism sect in Maharashtra. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Sittanavasal is a small village in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu. It was a major centre of Jain influence for 1,000 years just before the Christian era. Sittanavasal is the name used synonymously for the hamlet and the hillock that houses the Arivar Kovil (temple of Arihats - Jains who conquered their senses), ‘Ezhadipattam’ (a cavern with 17 polished rock beds), megalithic burial sites and the Navachunai tarn (small mountain lake) with a submerged shrine. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Sol. Ans.(a) The handloom sector is a symbol of India’s rich and varied cultural heritage, and is an important source of livelihood in rural and semi-rural parts of our country. It is also a sector that directly addresses women’s empowerment with over 70% of all weavers and allied workers being female. Rooted in nature, it has eco-friendly production processes with minimal requirement of capital and power, and provides flexibility to innovate to meet changes in fashion trends and fast-changing customer preferences.

The Swadeshi Movement which was launched on 7th August, 1905 had encouraged indigenous industries and in particular handloom weavers. In 2015, the Government of India decided to designate the 7th August every year, as the National Handloom Day. The first National Handloom Day was inaugurated on 7 August 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai.

On this day, India honours the handloom-weaving community and highlight the contribution of this sector in the socio-economic development of our country. We reaffirm our resolve to protect our handloom heritage and to empower the handloom weavers and workers financially and instilling pride in their exquisite craftsmanship.

So, statements 1 and 2 both are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of 1.

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Sol. Ans.(d) According to Flag Code of India 2002, “The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.” So statement I is incorrect. No need to check ahead. Only possible answer is (d).

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Sol. Ans.(c) Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950. So, Statement-I is correct.

The Drafting Committee was set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of seven member - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman), N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr. K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N. Madhava Rau (He replaced B.L. Mitter who resigned due to ill-health, T.T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948), The Drafting Committee, after taking into consideration the proposals of the various committees, prepared the first draft of the Constitution of India, which was published in February 1948. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Sol. Ans.(c) In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.8 bn in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. So, statement 1 is correct.

Switzerland has the seventh-largest reserves of gold in the world. Its reserves of 1,040.0 tons account for 6.3% of its foreign reserves. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Sol. Ans.(c) EU-US Trade and Technology Council - The European Union and the United States are partners strongly committed to driving digital transformation and cooperating on new technologies based on their shared democratic values, including respect for human rights.

The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values. It was established during the EU-US Summit on 15 June 2021 in Brussels.

So, statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(d) As per the WTO data released in April 2019, for the year 2018, India’s share in global exports for merchandise was 1.7%. India aims to raise the share of its exports in global trade to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047 from the current 2.1%, promoting hundred Indian brands as global champions. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

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Sol. Ans.(a) The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a binding diplomatic agreement among European Union (EU) member states. Economic policies and activities are coordinated cohesively to safeguard the stability of the economic and monetary union. So, only statement 1 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(a) The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (A/RES/73/195), is the first intergovernmental agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. It was adopted at an intergovernmental conference on migration in Marrakesh, Morocco on 10 December 2018.

It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory and demonstrates commitment to international cooperation on migration. So, statement 1 is correct but 2 and 3 are not.

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Sol. Ans.(b) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. They are recruited from amongst all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc. help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties. So, statement 2 is correct.

Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States. Punjab (6), Rajasthan (4), Gujarat (2) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas. So, statement 3 is correct.

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Sol. Ans.(b) The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1923, applies to government officials, government servants, citizens framed with the charges of sedition, threatening the integrity of the nation, spying, unlawful use of government uniform, causing interventions in the armed forces, and so on. So, 1 is correctly matched.

The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1923 states that “No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of engaged on guard, Sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.” So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 ensures that those using firearms in a rash or negligent manner in celebratory gunfire, endangering human life or personal safety of others, shall be punishable with an imprisonment to two years or with fine which may extend to Rs one lakh or with both. So, pair 3 correctly matched. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Sol. Ans.(d) North Kivu and Ituri are the Provinces of the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Since Feb 2023, violence and conflict in eastern DRC has increased, forcing more waves of people from their homes in search of safety. In Ituri, North Kivu and South Kivu, between 5.6 and 6 million people are now internally displaced according to UN estimates. So, 1 is not correctly matched.

The landlocked mountainous region of Nagorno-Karabakh is the subject of an unresolved dispute between Azerbaijan and Armenia. So, 2 is not correctly matched.

Russia carried out referendums on joining Russia in the Ukrainian regions of Luhansk, Donetsk, Zaporizhzhia and Kherson – which represent 15 percent of Ukraine’s territory and are controlled by Russia. So, 3 is not correctly matched.

Sol. Ans.(c) The development of open, friendly relations between Israel and some Gulf Arab states has emerged as a significant new dynamic of the 21st century Middle East. Although the diplomatic accords signed by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain with Israel in 2020 constituted a breakthrough in relations, the lines of communication and cooperation between the Gulf states and Israel are not new. Multiple countries in the region, including Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman, established connections with Israel in the 1990s after the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) and Israel signed the Oslo Accords. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Arab Peace Initiative is a 10-sentence proposal for an end to the Arab–Israeli conflict that was endorsed by the Arab League in 2002 at the Beirut Summit and re-endorsed at the 2007 and at the 2017 Arab League summits. The initiative offers normalisation of relations by the Arab world with Israel, in return for a full withdrawal by Israel from the occupied territories (including the West Bank, Gaza, the Golan Heights, and Lebanon), a "just settlement" of the Palestinian refugee problem based on UN Resolution 194, and the establishment of a Palestinian state with East Jerusalem as its capital.

The Israeli government under Ariel Sharon rejected the initiative as a "non-starter" because it required Israel to withdraw to pre-June 1967 borders. After the renewed Arab League endorsement in 2007, then-Prime Minister Ehud Olmert gave a cautious welcome to the plan. In 2015, Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu expressed tentative support for the Initiative, but in 2018, he rejected it as a basis for future negotiations with the Palestinians. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Sol. Ans.(b) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award - The recipient(s) is/are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and is honoured for their “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at international level. So, 1 is correctly matched.

Arjuna Award: It was instituted in 1961 by the Government of India to recognise outstanding achievement in national sports events. It is given for good performance over a period of previous four years and showing qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline. So, 2 is not correctly matched.

Dronacharya Award - It was instituted in 1985 by the Government of India to recognise excellence in sports coaching. It is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and enabling sportspersons to excel in international events. So, 3 is correctly matched.

Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar – It is given to corporate entities (both in private and public sector), Sports Control Boards, NGOs, including sports bodies at the State and National level, who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. So, 4 is not correctly matched.

Sol. Ans.(b) For the 1st time ever, the world’s biggest chess event is happening in India. Chennai is hosting the 44th Chess Olympiad. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Official Mascot of 44th Chess Olympiad is ‘Thambi’. The word ‘Thambi’ in Tamil language means - little or younger brother. So, statement 2 is correct.

1st place in the Open section - Hamilton-Russel Cup. So, statement 3 is not correct.

1st place in the Women’s section - Vera Menchik Cup. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Sol. Ans.(d) The Donbas or Donbass is a historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine. So, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Kachin State also known by the endonym Kachinland, is the northernmost state of Myanmar. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Tigray is Ethiopia’s northernmost region. Bordering Eritrea, it is home to most of the country’s estimated 7 million ethnic Tigrayans. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Sol. Ans.(d). Mali, Chad, Guinea, Sudan and Burkina Faso, these five nations that have recently experienced military coups.

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Sol. Ans.(c) Green hydrogen is expected to play a prominent role in decarbonising heavy industries, including oil refineries, steel mills and fertiliser plants.

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Sol. Ans.(c) The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues. So, statement 1 is correct.

G20 India has put forth six agenda priorities for the G20 dialogue in 2023 which include – Green Development, Climate Finance & LiFE, Accelerated, Inclusive & Resilient Growth, Accelerating progress on SDGs, Technological Transformation & Digital Public Infrastructure, Multilateral Institutions for the 21st century, Women-led development. So, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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