Ans.(b). The Eastern Ghats run from the northern Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka. They are eroded and cut through by the four major rivers of peninsular India, known as the Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna, and Kaveri. The mountain ranges run parallel to the Bay of Bengal.

The Eastern Ghats are the source area for many small and medium rivers of the east coastal plains of South India.

Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include - Baitarani River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River, Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River, Champavathi River, Gosthani River, Sarada River, Sabari River, Sileru River, Tammileru Gundlakamma River, Pennai Yaru River, Swarnamukhi, Kundu River, Vellar River, Penna River.

The Brahmani river is a major seasonal river in Odisha, formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers. Together with the river Baitarani, it forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.

Ans.(b). The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental body based in Kingston, Jamaica, that was established to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying most of the world's oceans. It is an organization established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. So, statement 1 is not correct. So only (b) can be the answer!

(The Global Ocean Commission was a body that existed for a few years since 2013)

In 2017, India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years. Vast reserves of vital rare earth minerals are found in ocean bed. So statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Ans.(a). Around 210 litres of water is required to produce one kg of sugarcane.

Millets are astonishingly low water consuming crops. The rainfall needed for Sorghum, Pearl Millet and Finger Millet is less than 25% of sugarcane and banana, and 30% that of rice.

Sunflower requires far less water than Millets and Sugarcane.

For Red Gram, no irrigation is required during monsoon, but in case of drought or long dry spell during the reproductive period of growth, supplementary/life-saving irrigations should be given. A total of just 20-25 cm of water is sufficient to raise a good crop.

Ans.(c). Air temperature differences across the Earth's surface (both land and water) create winds, with warm air being lighter than cold air. Near the equator, the sun heats the sea surface, causing the warm air at the surface to rise and be replaced by the trade winds blowing from subtropical high pressure systems into equatorial low-pressure troughs. The trade winds blow steadily for days and are among the most consistent on earth. When trade winds move over warm tropical waters, they pick up moisture and bring heavy rainfall to the windward-facing slopes of mountainous areas, contrasting with the downward motion of dry air that creates desert areas on land. Because the area of Earth between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, lying at approximately 23 degrees latitude on either side of the equator, receives more solar heat than the rest of the earth, the warm air creates clouds and rain with thunder-showers there almost every day.

The influence of the trade winds on weather and climate is seen with El Niño, La Niña, and the development of hurricanes/cyclones. The differences in pressure and temperature between the two sides of the Pacific are caused by the trade winds; air blowing from east to west pushes water, making the sea level higher in the western Pacific, and makes cold water rise toward the surface, making the eastern Pacific approximately 14 degrees F (7.7 degrees C) cooler than the western Pacific.

So statement 1 is correct.

In the mid-latitudes, the gyre circulations move poleward along the eastern coasts of continents (the western edges of the ocean), bringing warm water. The water off the east coasts of these places is thus warmer than one expects for that latitude. The return flow on the eastern edges of ocean basins (west coast of continents) brings cold water from poleward of that latitude. This analysis applies to the mid-latitudes only. There are opposite gyres closer to the poles that make the east coasts much colder than expected. (Compare the Alaska current to the Labrador, which is off the east coast of Canada.)

So statement 2 is correct.

Ans.(d). CCAFS’s major activities in India include test, evaluate and develop portfolios of climate-smart interventions for different agro-ecological zones and farm types; promotion of CSA through the Climate-Smart Village (CSV) approach; weather-based insurance; use of ICT for dissemination of climate information based agro-advisories; mapping hotspots of germplasm collection and conservation; crowdsourcing farmers preferences for stress resistant varieties; gender and social inclusion in climate change adaptation; and development of decision-support tools for planning and investment in adaptation and mitigation activities. CCAFS and CGIAR centers together are engaging with national and sub-national stakeholders including policymakers, NGOs and civil society groups, research organizations, farmers groups and private sector for promotion of climate-smart agriculture in India. Priority areas include Indo-Gangetic Plan of Northern India and dryland agriculture systems in southern and western parts of India. CGIAR is a global partnership that unites international organizations engaged in research about food security. It is Headquarterd at Montpellier, France.

ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array of partners throughout the world, headquartered in Patancheru (Telangana), India with several regional centers.

Hence all the three statements are correct.

Ans.(d). Leaf litter decomposition in terrestrial ecosystems has a major role in the biogeochemical cycling of elements in the environment. Climatic features, like temperature, rainfall, humidity, and seasonal variations affect the rate of litter decomposition.

The tropical rainforest is a hot, moist biome where it rains all year long. It is known for its dense canopies of vegetation that form three different layers. The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to heights of 75 m (about 250 ft) or more. This layer of vegetation prevents much of the sunlight from reaching the ground. Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for sunlight. The middle layer, or understory, is made up of vines, smaller trees, ferns, and palms.

The hot, humid climate leads to rapid chemical weathering of the bedrock. In addition to this the climate provides ideal conditions for the rapid decomposition of leaf litter. However, the soils are fragile and depend upon the rapid decomposition of leaf litter for nutrients. The rapid decomposition leads to a thin humus layer. If vegetation is removed nutrients are quickly leached and the soil rapidly loses fertility.

Ans.(c). Savannas are defined based on vegetation structure, the central idea being a discontinuous tree cover in a continuous grass understorey. Fire, grazing herbivore and seasonal rainfall are behind the scarce forest development in the region.

The tree component of savannas generally becomes more important as rainfall increases, but other factors such as topography, soil, and grazing intensity all exert influences in complex and variable ways. Dry-season fires, fueled by dried grass, may kill some trees, especially the more-vulnerable young saplings, and, therefore, their severity also greatly affects the nature of savanna vegetation. So "fire" is correct, and 2 must be in the answer.

So options (b) and (d) are gone.

Clearly 3 and 4 are important.

Savannas get very little rain – about 4 inches (100 mm) of rain – in the dry season, and they will often not get any rainfall at all for many months. This is a long time for plants to go without water. But the wet season gets lots of rain.

(An unusually large proportion of dead organic matter—approximately 30 percent—is decomposed through the feeding activities of termites. Thus, a significant proportion of released mineral nutrients may be stored for long periods in termite mounds where they are not readily available to plant roots. In savannas in Thailand it has been shown that soil fertility can be markedly improved by mechanically breaking up termite mounds and spreading the material across the soil surface. In Kenya, old termite mounds, which are raised above the general soil surface, also provide flood-proof sites where trees and shrubs can grow, with grassland between them, forming the so-called termite savanna.)

Ans.(b). It is evident from the table below that only statement 2 is correct.

Ans.(b). Moringa Oleifera (Drumstick tree) is the best-known species of moringa tree family Moringaceae. It is the fast-growing, drought resistance tree, native to the sub-Himalayan tract of north India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan. It is considered to have an origin in Agra and Oudh, the northwest of India. The tree is rich in phytosterol like stigmasterol, sitosterol, and campesterol which are the precursor for hormones. It is a non-leguminous tree. So, 1 is not correct.

(Crops which have nodules in their roots which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria are called leguminous crops.)

If 1 is not correct, then only (b) can be our answer!

Tamarind, (Tamarindus indica), evergreen tree of the pea family (Fabaceae), native to tropical Africa. So statement 2 is also incorrect.

Ans.(b). Among the in-situ soils of India, the black soils found in the lava-covered areas are the most visible ones. Those are often popularly known as “black cotton soils,” since cotton has been the most common traditional crop in areas where they are found.

Black soils are derivatives of trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.

Black soil is a result of weathering of igneous basaltic rocks, a type of extrusive rock. Black soil is generally found in the Deccan trap, formed 66 million years ago. It is generally 2000 meters in depth.

Ans.(c). Genetic engineering is broad term that refers to the process that is used to manipulate the genetic structure of an organism. Recombinant technology is one of the methods of Genetic Engineering. So clearly, 1 is correct. So options (b) and (d) are wrong.

Though Recombinant Vector Vaccines are primarily developed using virus, they can also be developed using bacteria also. Hence 2 is also correct.

Ans.(a). Mitochondrial diseases are chronic (long-term), genetic, often inherited disorders that occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy for the body to function properly. (Inherited means the disorder was passed on from parents to children.) Mitochondrial diseases can be present at birth, but can also occur at any age.

Primary mitochondrial disease is a genetic condition that can be inherited (passed from parents to their children) in several ways. Under normal circumstances, a child inherits genes in pairs -- one gene from the mother and one from the father. A child with a mitochondrial disease does NOT receive a normal pair of genes from the parents (but mutated ones).

Inheritance types are many – (i) Autosomal recessive inheritance: This child receives one mutated copy of a gene from each parent. There is a 25% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; (ii) Autosomal dominant inheritance: This child receives one mutated copy of a gene from either parent. There is a 50% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; (iii) Mitochondrial inheritance: In this unique type of inheritance, the mitochondria contain their own DNA. Only mitochondrial disorders caused by mutations in the mitochondrial DNA are exclusively inherited from mothers. If this is the way a mitochondrial disease was inherited, there is a 100% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; and (iv) Random mutations: Sometimes genes develop a mutation of their own that is not inherited from a parent.

Thus it is only in “Mitochondrial inheritance” that disease comes from mother and not father. So 2 is not right. So (b) and (c) are ruled out.

MRT is possible after and before in vitro fertilization.

Pronuclear transfer technique (PTT) – It is a significant approach of MRT administered after fertilization, in which two zygotes are raised in vitro. One of the zygotes belongs to the biological parents with pronuclei and defective mitochondria and the other one to the donor with pronuclei and healthy mitochondria

Maternal spindle transfer (MST) technique – The technique, executed before fertilization is a form of selective reproduction similar to prenatal diagnosis and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD).

So 1 is right and (a) is the answer.

Ans.(b). Bollgard I, the predominantly cultivated pest tolerant cotton, contains only one gene, the Cry 1Ac, from Bacillus thuringiensis.

Bollgard II contains the Cry 2 Ab gene, in addition to Cry 1 Ac. The Bollgard II event developed by Mahyco-Monsanto Biotech Ltd, (MMBL) is technically designated as MON 15985.

Ans.(c). 1 and 3 only.

The simple logic of pressure cooking is that if you raise the pressure in an enclosed space, then the boiling point of liquid contained in that space will also rise. Water has a boiling point of 100° C at 1 atmosphere. If pressure rises, water’s boiling point rises too. It carries more heat, and cook things faster.

A pressure cooker has a modified lid that locks on over a rubber gasket to create a seal. The cooker works by raising the temperature of boiling water. To use a pressure cooker, we put the food in the pot with some liquid. Once the lid is locked in place and the cooker is set on high heat, steam develops in the pot and can’t escape. The trapped steam increases the atmospheric pressure inside the cooker above normal sea-level pressure. At that pressure, the boiling point of water is increased. This higher temperature is what cooks food faster. Once the cooker has reached full pressure, usually indicated by a gauge or pop-up rod on the lid, a release valve opens, letting out steam in a regulated flow to maintain a constant temperature inside the pot.

More will be the weight of the lid, more pressure and temperature the cooker can sustain. The area of the hole in the lid should be appropriate; if it is larger then proper pressure and temperature will not be maintained.

But the temperature of the flame will not matter, as it will decide the “time” taken to cook the food, nothing else. A higher temperature will cook the food faster, and vice versa. It will not affect the pressure inside the cooker because even a low temperature flame, given sufficient time, will build the needed pressure anyway.

Ans.(a). Viruses can infect animals, plants, and even other microorganisms. Since viruses lack metabolic machinery of their own and are totally dependent on their host cell for replication, they cannot be grown in synthetic culture media. Only option possible is option (a).

Ans.(b). Adenoviruses are medium-sized, nonenveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing a double stranded DNA, whereas retroviruses are single-stranded RNA animal viruses that employ a double-stranded DNA intermediate.

An adenovirus is considered as the largest among the non-enveloped viruses. This term indicates that the virus has no protective protein-coating, called capsids, to wrap the genetic information stored inside the virus. This virus contains a double-stranded DNA. It has been proven that this virus is the cause for about 10% of upper respiratory infections in children and adults. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).

A retrovirus, on the other hand, is an example of an enveloped virus. In this case, it has a protective protein coat that makes it more resilient and has a higher tendency to cause diseases. It is considered as an RNA virus and can integrate itself to its host cells, thus, causing damage to the cell. The disease AIDS is caused by a retrovirus named HIV.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Ans.(a). Water is called the "universal solvent" because it is capable of dissolving more substances than any other liquid. It is water's chemical composition and physical attributes that make it such an excellent solvent.

Water molecules have a polar arrangement of oxygen and hydrogen atoms—one side (hydrogen) has a positive electrical charge and the other side (oxygen) had a negative charge.

This phenomenon is called the dipolar nature of the water molecule.

This allows the water molecule to become attracted to many other different types of molecules.

Ans.(c). LED lamps provide directional light (over 180 degrees), unlike Sodium lamps with 360 degrees light direction. Hence statement 1 is true. Answer can be (c) or (d).

LED lamps as street light has longest lifespan compared with other street light types (50,000 to 100,000 hours). Hence statement 2 is not true. Answer is option (c).

Color Rendering Index (CRI) - CRI is how the light source reflects the color of an object, showing its aesthetics and form. Criteria for Street Lights – 75 to 100: Excellent; 65 to 75: Good; 55 to 65: Fair; 0 to 55: Poor. LED street lights have CRI of 65 to 95 while Sodium lamps have CRI of 20 to 30 (almost monochromatic). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Ans.(d). ACE2 stands for Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2. It has been in news continuously due to Covid-19.

The ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate functions in the cell. Using the spike-like protein on its surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 – like a key being inserted into a lock – prior to entry and infection of cells. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway – a receptor – for the virus that causes COVID-19.

Ans.(b). Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins.

Exposure to BPA is a concern because of the possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants and children. It can also affect children's behaviour. Research suggests a possible link between BPA and increased blood pressure, type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.

Ans.(d). Triclosan is an ingredient added to many consumer products intended to reduce or prevent bacterial contamination. It is added to some antibacterial soaps and body washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics—products regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). It also can be found in clothing, kitchenware, furniture, and toys—products not regulated by the FDA.

Some animal studies have shown that exposure to high doses of triclosan is associated with a decrease in the levels of some thyroid hormones. There are other ongoing studies that involve the safety of triclosan. One is a study investigating the potential of developing skin cancer after a long-term exposure to triclosan in animals.

Ans.(d). An excellent question.

A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space. It’s defined by how far a beam of light travels in one year – a distance of six trillion miles.

Reasons to measure astronomical distances in light year are – (a) Speed of light is constant, and (b) It is large enough for such lengths and is even concise.

Measuring in light-years also allows astronomers to determine how far back in time they are viewing. Because light takes time to travel to our eyes, everything we view in the night sky has already happened. In other words, when you observe something 1 light-year away, you see it as it appeared exactly one year ago.

Ans.(c). The parliamentary system of India is largely based on the British parliamentary system but it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects –

1. India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system
2. The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.

Hence statement 1 is true.

Now, a Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These are not a routine phenomenon. A vast majority of cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division Bench), and sometimes of three. Constitution Benches are exceptions, set up only if one or more of the following circumstances exist:

1. The case involves a substantial question of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution;
2. The President of India has sought the Supreme Court’s opinion on a question of fact or law under Article 143 of the Constitution;
3. Two or more three-judge benches of the Supreme Court have delivered conflicting judgments on the same point of law, thus warranting a definitive pronouncement by a larger bench;
4. A later three-judge bench doubts the correctness of a judgment delivered by a previous three-judge bench of the Supreme Court, and decides to refer the case to a larger bench for a reconsideration of that earlier judgment.

So statement 2 is true whenever it happens (but in UK, it cannot happen at all).

Hence answer is (c).

Ans.(d). N G Iyengar was part of the 7-member drafting committee of the Indian constitution appointed on August 29, 1947. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division.

So statement 1 is incorrect.

On 07th February, 1973, the work relating to Department of Administrative Reforms was transferred to Department of Personnel created under Cabinet Secretariat on 01st August, 1970 and was re-designated as Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms.

( refer https://darpg.gov.in/about-department-0 )

So statement 2 is not correct.

Hence both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Ans.(c). In its landmark verdict in the Puttaswamy case, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right by the Supreme Court of India. This right is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

Article 21 of Constitution of India: Protection of Life and Personal Liberty. Article 21 states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” Thus, article 21 secures two rights: Right to life, and Right to personal liberty.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India forbids discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. So option (a) is not correct.

Article 19 of the Constitution provides freedom of speech which is the right to express one's opinion freely without any fear through oral/written/electronic/broadcasting/press.

Article 29 of the Indian Constitution is related with Protection of interests of minorities.

Ans.(b). Elections in India are governed by the Representation of People’s Act, 1951 (RPA), and conducted and organised by the Election Commission of India (ECI).

As per Section 33(7) of the RPA, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies).

So, statement 1 is incorrect. Answer could be option (b) or (d).

The Election Commission recommended amending Section 33(7) so as to allow one candidate to contest from only one seat. It did so in 2004, 2010, 2016 and again in 2018. These were recommendations given to the Executive and the Supreme Court. (If not an amendment, the EC opined that a system should be devised wherein if a candidate contested from two constituencies and won both, then he or she would bear the financial burden of conducting the subsequent by-election in one of the constituencies. The amount would be Rs 5 lakh for a Vidhan Sabha election and Rs 10 lakh for a Lok Sabha election.)

So, statement 3 is not correct.

So answer should be (b). [but we were not able to confirm which 3 seats did Mr Devi Lal contest from, in the 1991 LS elections]

Ans.(c). Refer site https://www.right2city.org/the-right-to-the-city/

The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants, present and future, permanent and temporary, to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, govern and enjoy just, inclusive, safe and sustainable cities, villages and human settlements, defined as commons essential to a full and decent life.

So statement 2 is correct. So options (a) and (b) are ruled out.

The Right to the City is a collective right that highlights the territorial integrality and interdependence of all internationally recognized civil, political, economic, social, cultural and environmental rights, as regulated in international human rights treaties, bringing them the territorial dimension and a focus on adequate life standards.

Now refer to - https://uploads.habitat3.org/hb3/Habitat%20III%20Policy%20Paper%201.pdf

So statement 1 seems right.

Hence answer is (c).

Ans.(b). The word 'custody' means apprehending someone for protective care.

Police Custody (PC) means that police has the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody (JC) means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate.

In former, the accused is lodged in police station lockup while in latter, it is the jail.

During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Ans.(b). A Parole in Criminal Law is the release of a convict from imprisonment upon certain conditions to be observed by him. It is a release from prison after part of the sentence has been served, the prisoner still remaining in custody and under stated conditions until discharged and liable to return to the institution for violation of any of these conditions.

The power to grant Parole is essentially the function of the executive and to consider the request made by the prisoner for his release on parole is the prerogative of the executive only.

Rules have been framed in every State regulating the grant of parole. Hence statement 2 is true.

Every prisoner before his entitlement for his release on parole has to meet certain eligibility criteria.

Further in the following cases, parole would ordinarily be not granted except, if in the discretion of the competent authority special circumstances exist for grant of parole;

1. If the prisoner is convicted of murder after rape;
2. If the prisoner is convicted for murder and rape of children;
3. If prisoner is convicted for multiple murders.

Hence statement 1 is not true.

Ans.(d). The Scheduled Tribes And Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 - The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 - recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs.

It is explicitly mentioned in the Chapter VI of the act is that “Nodal agency – The Ministry of the Central Government dealing with Tribal Affairs or any officer or authority authorised by the Central Government in this behalf shall be the nodal agency for the implementation of the provisions of this Act”.

Ans.(a). Apart from preamble Article 14 of Indian Constitution ensures equality before law and equal protection of law to the citizen of India.

Article 14 which at the root of arbitrariness and Article 21 guarantees right to life and liberty which is the fundamental provision to protect liberty and ensure life with dignity. It bars discrimination and prohibits both discriminatory laws and administrative action.

Article 22 guarantees natural justice and provision of fair hearing to the arrested person.

Article 28 deals with Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

Article 32 deals with the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies', or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.

Article 44 of Indian Constitution is related with Uniform Civil Code.

Ans.(a). Constitutions are either unitary or federal. In the unitary government, the powers of the government are centralised in the central government and the states are subordinate to the centre.

In a federal constitution, there is a division of power between the states and the central government and both are independent in their own spheres.

Indian Constitution is neither purely federal nor purely integral. It is a harmonious mixture of both.

Key features of federalism can be listed as

1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government
2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
3. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
6. The most important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Constitution is the principle that relations between the States and the centre would be based on cooperation. For this, an independent Judiciary is a must.

Hence, Option (a) is correct.

Ans.(a). The term ‘State’ is central to the study of Political Science. But it is wrongly used as synonym for nation, society, government etc.

Some of the definitions of the concept of State are as follows:

“The State is the politically organized people of a definite territory” - Bluntschli

State is “a community of persons, more or less numerous, permanently occupying a definite portion of territory, independent, or nearly so, of external control, and possessing an organized government to which the great body of inhabitants render habitual obedience.” – Garner

State is “a territorial society divided into governments and subjects, whether individuals or associations of individuals, whose relationships are determined by the exercise of this supreme coercive power.” – Laski

State “is a people organized for law within a definite territory”. –Woodrow Wilson

“The State is a concept of political science, and a moral reality which exists where a number of people, living on a definite territory, are unified under a government which in internal matters is the organ of expressing their sovereignty, and in external matters is independent of other governments.” – Gilchrist

A ”state” is such that it alone has the prerogative of making laws. The lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is the most distinctive characteristic of the State.

Only option (a) suits the definitions.

Ans.(c). IStatement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is correct: Being “A Court Of Record”, a High Court can review its own judgments under Article 226 Of the Constitution. The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders. A Division Bench of Chief Justice S Manikumar and Shaji P Chaly were confronted with an appeal against a review petition.

Ans.(a). Part II of the Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) deals with the Citizenship of India.

ARTICLE 5: CITIZENSHIP AT THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION

At the commencement of this Constitution, every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and –

1. who was born in the territory of India; or
2. either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or
3. who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement, shall be a citizen of India.

ARTICLE 9: PERSONS VOLUNTARILY ACQUIRING CITIZENSHIP OF A FOREIGN STATE NOT TO BE CITIZENS

No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of article 5 or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of article 6 or article 8 if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

ARTICLE 10: CONTINUANCE OF THE RIGHTS OF CITIZENSHIP

Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions of this Part shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such citizen.

Deprivation Of Citizenship [Section 10 or Indian Citizenship Act, 1955]

Deprivation is a compulsory termination of citizenship of India. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, domicile and residence, may be deprived of his citizenship by an order of the Central Government if it is satisfied that:

The citizen has obtained the citizenship by means of fraud, false representation or concealment of any material fact;

The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;

The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

The citizen has, within five years after registration or neutralization, been imprisoned in any country for two years;

The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Article 58 of the constitution sets the principal qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the president. A president must be: a citizen of India, be of 35 years of age or above. There is no written provision explaining that Indian Citizen of foreign origin as president.

Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Ans.(d). In the liberal approach which is inherent in democracy, all forms of power are rooted in the will of the people.

This enhances the rule of law as one of the basic foundations of democracy; it affirms the separation of powers as a vehicle for their restraint, and it promotes individuals’ rights and freedoms as a prerequisite for their dignity.

A “committed judiciary” is a derogatory word that means committed to the-then prevailing government. Hence (a) is wrong. Option (b) clearly is wrong.

Ans.(b). In the directive principles of state policy of Indian Constitution, Article 38 says that “The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order by ensuring social, economic and political justice and by minimising inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities”.

Articles 39: The State shall in particular, direct its policies towards securing:

Right to an adequate means of livelihood to all the citizens.

The ownership and control of material resources shall be organised in a manner to serve the common good.

The State shall avoid concentration of wealth in a few hands.

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

The protection of the strength and health of the workers.

Childhood and youth shall not be exploited.

Ans.(b).

The Constitution originally provided for the ‘right to property’ under Articles 19 and 31 (fundamental right). Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.

The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The 44th Amendment of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. A new provision, Article 300-A, was added to the constitution, which provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law".

Regarding foreigners and Indian citizens: A foreign national of non-Indian origin resident outside India cannot buy any immovable property in India. It is illegal for foreign nationals to own property in India unless they satisfy the residency requirement of 183 days in a financial year (a tourist visa lasts for 180 days). It is also illegal to buy property on a tourist visa.

Property cannot be purchased jointly in the name of one eligible person with one non-eligible person. That means a non-resident Indian (NRI) or foreign national of Indian origin (PIO) cannot buy a property jointly with a foreigner. However, a foreign national resident in India does not require approval of RBI to purchase any immovable property in India. This is because once he is a resident in India, he gets the rights like any other resident. This freedom is however not available to citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, China, Iran, Nepal and Bhutan.

Ans.(b). According to constitution at the time of its commencement on January 26, 1950, India was a Sovereign, Democratic, Republic. It got constitutional status of being Socialist and Secular after 42nd amendment act 1976.

Ans.(d). Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power.

Representative democracy, also known as indirect democracy, is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected persons representing a group of people, in contrast to direct democracy.

A federal republic is a federation of states with a republican form of government.

Hence only option (d) is true.

Ans.(d). Halbi, Ho and Kui are the tribal languages of India.

Halbi is an Eastern Indo-Aryan language, transitional between Odia and Marathi. It is spoken by 500,000 people across the central part of India.

Ho is a Munda language of the Austroasiatic language family spoken primarily in India by about 1.04 million people (0.103% of India's population) per the 2001 census. It is spoken by the Ho, Munda, Kolha and Kol tribal communities of Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Assam and is written with the Warang Citi script.

Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language spoken by the Kandhas. It is mostly spoken in Odisha, and written in the Odia script.

Ans.(c). Bharat Ratna -

1. ‘Bharat Ratna’, the highest civilian Award of the country, was instituted in the year 1954.
2. Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.
3. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
4. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. No formal recommendations for this are necessary.
5. The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
6. On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
7. The Award does not carry any monetary grant.

Padma Awards –

1. The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
2. The Awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
3. The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
4. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
5. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997.

Article 18(1) of Indian Constitution abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.

Hence statements 1, 2, and 3 are NOT correct.

Ans.(d). The Arbor Day Foundation and the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (not UNCDF as given in question) have recognised Hyderabad as ‘2020 Tree City of the World’. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Hyderabad was selected as a Tree City because of its initiatives like Haritha Haram programme and Urban Forest Parks plan. Haritha Haram is a flagship program of the state government for large-scale plantations across the state to increase the green cover. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Ans.(c). The Laureus World Sports Awards is an annual award ceremony honouring individuals and teams from the world of sports along with sporting achievements throughout the year. It was established in 1999 by Laureus Sport for Good Foundation founding patrons Daimler and Richemont.

The first ceremony was held on 25 May 2000 in Monte Carlo in which American golfer Tiger Woods was the (first) winner of the award.

Swiss tennis player Roger Federer holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the Year and one for Comeback of the Year.

Of the total 21 times for which the award has been awarded yet the ‘Formula One’ players have won it only for four times i.e., in 2020 – Lewis Hamilton, 2014- Sebastian Vettel and 2002 and 2004 - Michael Schumacher.

Hence only statements 1 and 3 are true

Ans.(b). The official motto for the 32nd Summer Olympics (2020 Summer Olympics) held in Tokyo (Japan) in 2021 (delayed by the COVID-19 disease) was ‘United by Vision’.

There has been a total of 42 sports, spanning 55 disciplines, included in the Olympic programme at one point or another in the history of the Games. For 32nd Summer Olympics the schedule has comprised 33 sports, spanning 50 disciplines.

In 2016 Summer Olympics held at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil), there were 28 sports (41 disciplines). The disciplines added in 2020 Summer Olympics by the Japanese Olympic Committee were baseball and softball, karate, sport climbing, surfing and skateboarding, the last four of which made their Olympic debuts, and the last three of which will remain on the Olympic program.

Hence only statement 2 is true.

Ans.(d). As per the information available on icc-cricket.com, New Zealand with 2,764 points has ranked ahead of England (points 3753).

For every test match contested in the 2021-23 cycle, in the ICC World Test Championship points system, twelve points will be awarded to the winning team, four points awarded for a draw and six for a tied game. The percentage of points won is used to determine the WTC standings.

Hence both 1 and 2 are not correct.