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UPSC PRELIMS 2021 PAPER II -- ANSWER KEYS

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BIRD'S EYEVIEW

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  • Overall the GS II paper (CSAT) 2021 was tough, and proper choice of questions was important to score well. The RC passages were neither easy enough to grasp immediately, nor were the questions too direct. Many questions in Maths were not easy at all. The trick was to know what to avoid.
  • The CSAT has been a qualifying test from 2015, was manageable in 2016, and quite tough in 2017. But 2018 saw a not-too-tough version! And then 2019 was again tough. 2020 was also quite tough. And 2021 also left many frustrated.
  • Pattern changes over the years: Year 2017 saw only RC, Reasoning and Maths being asked. They balanced it out in 2018, by asking many questions from Data Interpretation (DI) and Visual Reasoning also! Then they again “imbalanced it” in 2019! In 2020, Data Sufficiency made a comeback with 5 questions. In 2021, Assertion and reasoning questions were the toughest and left many confused. DS was absent. Lesson: Patterns change, be ready!
  • Major points in structure of 2021 Test: Questions asked only from 3 major topics. The distribution of questions was – 33 questions on Mathematics and Basic Numeracy, 27 questions on Reading Comprehension (26 passages) and 16 questions on Logical and Analytical Reasoning. (Check comparison table)
  • Reading Comprehension: The RC questions (mirror copy in English and Hindi) were tough and excellent! Overall 27 questions spread over 26 passages (last year (2020) it was 25 questions spread over 20 passages, in (2019) it was 30 questions over 24 passages, the year before (2018) it was 30 Q. spread over 29 passages, and in 2017 it was 27 Q. spread over 17 passages). That made sure that only the readers with reasonable speed could perform.
  • Many RC questions were very tough, and options too were tricky. Questions were from all hot topics (agriculture, employment, economic liberalization, environment, ecology, global warming, vaccines, science and technology, biology etc.) that we read daily as part of our preparations! Care was taken to insert English words in Hindi passages to tone down the toughness of technical Hindi, for Hindi students.
  • Maths not easy: Once again, Maths was not easy, and even the arithmetic type questions required some work. For the complete maths-haters & / or non-Maths students, it could be a problem. Sitters were not more than 5.
  • Overall, some practice is indeed required for the CSAT. You cannot just assume you’ll breeze through it without any preparation. Those who took it very lightly may pay the ultimate price : cracking Paper I and getting stuck here. We hope it doesn’t happen with anyone. Best of luck!
  • Data Interpretation which came in a big way in 2018 was completely missing in 2019, and only one question in 2020. This year, 2 questions. Data Sufficiency vanished.
  • A sincere hope! We sincerely hope that the government either makes the Paper II CSAT also mandatory like the Paper I, or simply scraps it altogether. In the present format, very few students take interest in it, and it’s becoming more of a mere formality to be completed. That reduces the intensity of the exercise, and is never good for student morale. Aptitude is a key part of an administrative officer’s life, and it is wrong to say that it should be only qualifying by nature.
TOPICWISE DISTRIBUTION

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DETAILED QUESTIONWISE SOLUTIONS (Set A)

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Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light — a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.

1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

  1. Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.
  2. Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.
  3. White light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colours.
  4. Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but for animals too.

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Light type and plant growth

Option (a) is not wrong, but it is a direct conclusion. We are asked to find the most critical inference.

Option (d) tells us in a generalized way the learning from the para. Hence it is the best.


Passage — 2

Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinators are insects. Pollination is responsible for providing us with a wide variety of food, as well as many plant-derived medicines. At least one-third of the world's agricultural crops depend upon pollination. Bees are the most dominant taxa when it comes to pollination and they are crucial to more than four hundred crops. Pollination is an essential service that is the result of intricate relationships between plants and animals, and the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. Effective pollination requires resources, such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation.

2. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made :

  1. Sustainable productior of India's cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals.
  2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects.
  3. Pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation.
  4. Diversity in insects induces diversity of plants.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Pollination and agriculture

The cereal food grains of India are not explicitly mentioned in the passage. Also, the use of the word “impossible” is extreme.

The key phrase in the para is “refuges of pristine natural vegetation”. So 3 and 4 are definitely valid.

Assumption 2 may or may not be correct. Also “horticultural crops” is not mentioned.


Passage — 3

A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic shifts will have an impact on the hydrological cycles in the region, ead to more run-off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase dependency on groundwater resources to secure their crops.

3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?

  1. Development of regional climate models helps in choosing climate-smart agricultural practices.
  2. Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land cropping systems.
  3. Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.
  4. Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies.
-

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Climate change and impact on water systems

Option (a) is not mentioned anywhere, and can be rejected.

Option (b) is also not mentioned, and can be rejected.

Option (d) is not wrong, but (c) better reflects the crux of the passage.


Passage — 4

Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environmental pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combination of biochemical and cell-based assays to examine the gene expression profile during the differentiation of mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA, a compound known to cause heart diseases, diabetes, and developmental abnormalities in humans. They were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers, such as endoderm and ectoderm, and the establishment of neural progenitor cells.

4. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo.
  2. Biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases.
  3. Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Stem cells for Bisphenol A’s physiological impact analysis

Statement 2 is not correct as it is too generalized, and the use of biochemical assays etc. was part of the experiment (not necessarily a way to find treatment).

So options (a), (b) and (d) are directly ruled out!


5.If 32019 is divided by 10, then what is the remainder?

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 7
  4. 9

Sol. Ans.(c). If any number is divided by 10 the remainder will be the unit digit of the dividend (the number which is divided). For example, if we divide 123 by 10, remainder will 3, if divide 1257 by 10 remainder will 7 if we divide 12 by 10 remainder will be 2 and so on.

To find the remainder when 32019 is divided by 10, we have to find the unit digit of 32019.

Unit digit of 3 for different power following pattern –

31 = 3, 32 = 9, 33 = 27, 34 = 81, 35 = 243, 36 = 729, 37 = 2187, 38 = 6561… and so on

Clearly every power which is multiple of 4 has unit digit 1.

Every power which is one more than multiple of 4 has unit digit 3

Every power which is two more than multiple of 4 has unit digit 9

Every power which is three more than multiple of 4 has unit digit 7… and this repeats forever.

In 3 2019, 2019 is three more than multiple of 4, so its unit digit would be 7.


6.The number 3798125P369 is divisible by

What is the value of the digit P?

  1. 1
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 9

Sol. Ans.(b). We know the divisibility rule for 7 7 - If you double the last digit and subtract it from the rest of the number and the answer is 0 or divisible by 7. For example, 672 is divisible by 7. When we double the last digit it will become, 674. Then subtract the last digit number 4 from 67, we get 67−4=63, is divisible by 7.

Working backwards from the options –

If P = 1, number would be 37981251369. From above rule it is not divisible by 7.

If P = 6 number would be 37981256369. From above rule it is divisible by 7.

So, correct answer is option (b).


7.From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on mth day of the year is 80 + 01m, where m = 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 and thereafter remains constant. On the other hand, the price of diesel (in Rupees per litre) on nth day of 2021 is 69 + 0.15n for any n. On which date in the year 2021 are the prices of these two fuels equal?

  1. 21st May
  2. 20th May
  3. 19th May
  4. 18th May

Sol. Ans.(b). As per given in question the price of Petrol on mth day would be 80 + 0.1m, where m = 1, 2, 3, … 100. So price of Petrol on 100th day and after this the price of petrol will 80 + 0.1 × 100 = Rs. 90 per litres.

The dates which are given in options are 18th, 19th, 20th and 21st May are the 138, 139, 140 and 141st day of year 2021 respectively. On these dates the price of Petrol will Rs. 90 per litre.

We have to find, on which of the above-mentioned dates the price of Petrol and Diesel was same.

As per question the price of Diesel on nth day = 69 + 0.15n. So on the day when the price of petrol and diesel would be same 69 + 0.15 n = 90. Which gives us n = 140. So on the 140th day (20th May) the price of Petrol and Diesel was same.


8.A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents the population after 11 years, then which one of the following equations represents the model of the class for the population ?

  1. P = 12 + 50n
  2. P = 50 + 12n
  3. P 50 (2)12n
  4. P = 50 (2)n/12

Sol. Ans.(d).

General form as follows

Initial population = 50 = 50 × 20

After 12 (12 × 1) years it would be 50 × 2 = 50 × 21

After 24 (12 × 2) years it would be 50 × 2 × 2 = 50 × 22

After 36 (12 × 3) years it would be 50 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 50 × 23

After 48 (12 × 4) years it would be 50 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 50 × 24

After n (12 × n/12) years it would be 50 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2….. n/12 times = 50 × 2n/12


9.In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign students are boys?

  1. 45%
  2. 40%
  3. 30%
  4. 20%

Sol. Ans.(d). 60% of the students from India.

Which means


Question says “What percentage of foreign students are boys?”

Total foreign students = 40

Total foreigner boys = 8

So required answer = 8 × 100/40 = 20%


10. A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement:

Some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches.

Conclusion-I: Certainly some radios are watches.

Conclusion-II : Certainly some mobiles are watches.

Which one of the following is correct?

  1. Only Conclusion-I
  2. Only Conclusion-II
  3. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
  4. Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Sol. Ans.(d).

Statements –

Some radios (R) are mobiles (M)

All mobiles are computer (C)

Some computer are watches (W)


From the above Venn Diagram, it is evident that, it is not certain that some radios are watches and it is also not certain that some mobiles are watches. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other large trees are absent. In natural forests, fig trees provide food for wildlife when other resources are scarce and support a high density and diversity of frugivores (fruit-eating animals). If frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit fig trees located in sites with high human disturbance, sacred fig trees may promote frugivore abundance. Under favourable microclimate, plenty of seedlings of other tree species would grow around fig trees.

11. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made :

  1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests.
  2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow.
  3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation.
  4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Fig trees as keystone species

Statement 1 is directly given in the passage, and is correct (valid). So options (b) and (c) are ruled out.

Just focus on statement 4 now. It is also directly given. So only possible answer choice is (d).


Passage — 2

At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such agricultural mimics, like their natural models, can be productive, pest-resistant, nutrient conserving, and resilient to shocks and stresses. In ecosystems there is no 'waste', nutrients are recycled indefinitely. Agroecology aims at closing nutrient loops, i.e., returning all nutrients that come out of the soil back to the soil such as through application of farmyard manure.

It also harnesses natural processes to control pests and build soil fertility i.e., through intercropping. Agroecological practices include integrating trees with livestock and crops.

12. Consider the following :

  1. Cover crops
  2. Fertigation
  3. Hydroponics
  4. Mixed farming
  5. Polyculture
  6. Vertical farming

Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage ?

  1. 1, 4 and 5 only
  2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
  4. 4 and 6 only

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Agro-ecology and its meaning

This was a tough one, which needed GK to solve.

Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system. In this system fertilizer solution is distributed evenly in irrigation. The availability of nutrients is very high therefore the efficiency is more. Clearly, this is chemical in nature, and cannot be agroecological. So, options (b) and (c) are ruled out.

In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. Crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. It aims at higher productivity in smaller spaces. It uses soil-less methods such as hydroponics, aquaponics and aeroponics. These may not be consistent with indefinite recycling. Hence, 6 is wrong.

So options (c) and (d) are gone.


Passage — 3

Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card details and datab#ses, but also with the real world of physical objects and vulnerable human bodies. A modern car is a computer on wheels; an aeroplane is a computer on wings. The arrival of the "Internet of Things" will see computers baked into everything from road signs and MRI scanners to prosthetics and insulin pumps. There is little evidence that these gadgets will be any more trustworthy than their desktop counterparts. Hackers have already proved that they can take remote control of internet connected cars and pacemakers.

13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given above?

  1. Computers are not completely safe.
  2. Companies producing the software do not take cyber security seriously.
  3. Stringent data security laws are needed.
  4. The present trend of communication technologies will affect our lives in future.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Computers are spreading far, wide and deep, and remain as vulnerable as ever

Option (b) is not mentioned explicitly anywhere so cannot be inferred.

Option (c) is a noble goal we have to target, but that’s not the inference from the paragraph.

Option (d) is about “communication technologies”.


Passage — 4

A social and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and insanitary conditions generates the risk of infectious diseases. Hygiene has different levels personal, domestic' and community hygiene. There is no doubt that personal cleanliness brings down the rate of infectious diseases. But the entry of the market into this domain has created a false sense of security that gets conditioned and reinforced by the onslaught of advertisements. Experience in Western Europe shows that along with personal hygiene, general improvements in environmental conditions and components like clean water, sanitation and food security have brought down infant/child death/infection rates considerably. The obsession with hand hygiene also brings in the persisting influence of the market on personal health, overriding or marginalising the negative impact on ecology and the emergence of resistant germs.

14. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made :

  1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene.
  2. Emergence of multi-drug resistant germs can be prevented by personal cleanliness.
  3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases.
  4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases.
  5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases.

Which of the above assumptions are valid ?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Cleanliness, diseases, hygiene, market and personal choices

Statement 1 is not necessarily correct with all persons, hence rejected. So (a) and (d) are rejected.

Statement 5 has to be correct. So answer is (c).


15.A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be " at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement : Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables.

Conclusion-I: Certainly some almirahs are tables.

Conclusion-II : Some cats may not be chairs. Which one of the following is correct ?

  1. Only Conclusion-I
  2. Only Conclusion-II
  3. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
  4. Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Sol. Ans.(b).

Statements – Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables.


From the above Venn Diagram, it is evident that both the conclusions I and II follows.


16.A boy plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of 1.5 m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4/5th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. What is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stops bouncing?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7

Sol. Ans.(b).

The ball will achieve 150, 150×4/5 = 120, 120×4/5 = 96, 96 × 4/5 = 76.8, 76.8 × 4/5 = 61.4 and 61.4 × 4/5 = 49.152 cm in each subsequent bounce.



17.Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?

  1. 13
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 16

Sol. Ans.(c).

Consonants in English Alphabet are – B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z – Total 21.

Out of these, the mirror images of H, M, T, V, W and X will be like the original.

So total 21 – 6 = 15 English Alphabet Consonants will not look like its original shape.



18.A bank employee drives 10 km towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20 km.. She again turns left and drives 40 kin, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30 km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house ?

  1. 20 km
  2. 25 km
  3. 30 km
  4. 35 km

Sol. Ans.(b). The shortest distance between her house and bank will be 25 km.



19.Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Sol. Ans.(d). From 700 to 1000 all the numbers apart from 1000 are of three digits. The sum of the digits of 1000 is not 10. So, we only have to check from 700 to 999.

Let the digits of the numbers a (hundreds place), b (tens place) and c (unit place).

a can have values 7, 8 and 9

b can have values from 0 to 9

c can have values from 0 to 9

Again a + b + c = 10

For (a, b, c), possible combinations are (7, 0, 3), (7, 1, 2), (7, 2, 1), (7, 3, 0), (8, 0, 2), (8, 1, 1), (8, 2, 0), (9, 0, 1) and (9, 1, 0).

So, total 9 numbers are possible.


20.A woman runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her South and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?

  1. An angle less than 45° South of East
  2. An angle less than 45° North of
  3. East An angle more than 45° South of
  4. East An angle more than 45° North of East

Sol. Ans.(b). The movement of the person is described in the diagram given below.


In right angle triangle ABC -


So, at the Final Point the persons is at an angle less than 45° North of East from his Starting Point.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy-making. The problems are multiple : sputtering fossil fuel production capabilities; limited access to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the poorest; rising fuel imports in an unstable global energy context; continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply; and not least, growing environmental contestation around land, water and air. But all is not bleak: growing energy efficiency programmes; integrated urbanisation and transport policy discussions; inroads to enhancing energy access and security; and bold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fully conceptualised, suggest the promise of transformation.

21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

  1. India's energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.
  2. India's energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.
  3. India's energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social, economic and environmental goals.
  4. India's energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – India’s energy challenges and response

Option (b) is not correct due to “heavily tuned”.

Option (c) is wrong due to “not compatible”.

Option (d) is wrong due to “ignores the demand side”.


Passage — 2

There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, the major pork exporter says it is producing more pigs —and the animals get fewer diseases.

22.Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?

  1. People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.
  2. Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.
  3. Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.
  4. Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Excess use of antibiotics and dangers of superbugs.

The options (a) and (b) are not the main message(s).

Option (c) comes close. But note carefully that antibiotics can be used to battle diseases. A total ban would mean a ban on that too. Hence (c) is rejected.

Option (d) is best.


Passage — 3

Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

23.With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

  1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
  2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Crisis of high food prices and various reasons

Assumption 1 is not correct because the para does not mention that oil producing countries are directly responsible for high food prices. High fuel prices may be due to other local reasons too.

So options (a) and (c) are gone.

Assumption 2 is not correct because the passage implies the crisis will be everywhere, not just in emerging economies. Hence, (d).


Passage — 4

A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions "economic growth", we know they mean growth in GDP.

24.With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.
  2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Use of GDP as the key metric in development economics

Assumption 1 is incorrect because the term “developed country” is not defined anywhere. So options (a) and (c) are gone.

Assumption 2 is incorrect because “reasonable distribution of income to all households” is not guaranteed at all, even with a rising GDP.


25.Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are

  1. ) Q and R
  2. Q and. If
  3. Q and T
  4. T and U

Sol. Ans.(c). Q and T.



26.Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40 where odd tents and even terms follow the same pattern

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 6

Sol. Ans.(a).

Given sequence is 3 2 7 4 13 10 21 18 31 28 43 40

The sequence in odd terms is

3 (+4) = 7, 7 (+6) = 13, 13 (+8) = 21, 21 (+10) = 31, 31(+12) = 43

The sequence in even terms is

2 (0) (which should be replaced by 0 for correct sequence) (+4) = 4, 4 (+6) = 10, 10 (+8) = 18, 18 (+10) = 28, 28 (+12) = 40.


27.Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly.


  1. 9B
  2. 3A
  3. 3B
  4. 3C

Sol. Ans.(c). There is presence of A, B and C, Row and Column wise. So, at the place of (?), B must be there.

Apart from this,

The number is the third column = number in second column – number in first column So, the missing number should be 13 – 10 = 3.

Complete entry would be 3B.


28.. You are given two identical sequences in two rows :


What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 9.375
  4. 32.8125

Sol. Ans.(c). 9.375.

Sequence I: 8 ( × 1/2) = 4; 4 (× 3/2) = 6; 6 (× 5/2) = 15; 15 (× 7/2) = 52.5; 52. 5 (×9/2) = 236.25

Sequence II: 5 ( × 1/2) = 2.5; 2.5 (× 3/2) = 3.75; 3.75 (× 5/2) = 9.375; and so on..


29.A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km/hr in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25 km/hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km/hr in the third hour and so on.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. They take 5 hours to meet.
  2. They meet midway between A and B.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(c).

Relative speed when bodies are moving in opposite direction can be obtained by adding the speeds of both the bodies.


From the above table, it is evident that they have met after exactly 5 hours.

In 5 hours X has travelled 5 × 1.5 = 7.5 km (Distance = Speed × Time). Remaining 15 – 7.5 = 7.5 km has been travelled by Y. So Both have travelled equal distance.

Both the statements are correct.


30.. A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5 : 6 : 7 : 8 : 9 : 10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many number of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Sol. Ans.(b). Let, the obtained marks in six papers are 50, 60, 70, 80, 90 and 100.

So, total obtained marks in six papers = 50 + 60 + 70 + 80 + 90 + 100 = 450

As, per information given in question 450 is 60% of the total maximum marks of six papers.

So, total maximum marks of six papers = 450 × 100/60 = 750.

Since each paper have equal maximum marks, maximum marks of individual paper = 750/6 = 125


60% of 125 = 75

Marks less 75 are in 3 papers.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other's religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.

31.What is the most logical assumption that can be made from the passage given above?

  1. No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.
  2. It is the duty of everyone to propagate one's religious denomination.
  3. Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man.
  4. Men do not understand their own religious denomination.

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – The relative nature of personal belief in religion

Option (a) is wrong as it is not necessary for a man to follow religion to live.

Option (b) is wrong as propagation of religion is not mentioned.

Option (d) is wrong as men have a particular understanding of their own religion for sure (mine is right, theirs is wrong).

But option (c) is right (most logical), as all men consider other religions wrong and their own right, thereby undermining the “unity of man” badly.


Passage — 2

It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much -to be imputed; to the wickedness, of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men's natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.

32.Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?

  1. Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.
  2. It is not the people, but, the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.
  3. That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.
  4. It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Laws in various dominions and behaviour of citizens

Option (a) is not the most rational inference as wars and sedition may not be inevitable in every dominion.

Option (b) is not rational due to use of the word “all problems”.

Option (d) is wrong due to “impossible”.


Passage-3

Inequality violates a basic democratic norm : the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some 'fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated" on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally . irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons possess some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketers, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human beings, is by now part of commonsense morality.

33.With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

  1. Equality is a prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.
  2. . Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.
  3. Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realised even in a democracy.
  4. Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary.

Which of the above assumptions are valid ?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Equality as a moral value is now universally accepted in societies

Assumption 1 is indeed correct, as the paragraph shows.

Assumption 2 is not wrong.

Assumption 3 is wrong, as it says equality as an idea is impossible even in a democracy. The paragraph clearly indicates the reverse. So 3 is wrong, so options (b) and (d) are wrong.

Assumption 4 is wrong as there is no discussion on a “Right to equality”. It is spoken of as a default principle. So (c) is also wrong. So (a) is our answer.


Passage — 4

Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy. — Plato

34.Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?

  1. Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.
  2. Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
  3. Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.
  4. Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.

Sol. Ans.(b). Theme of passage – Problems inherent in any form of government

Option (a) is technically not wrong, but it is not the best crux of the matter.

Option (c) is not the crux, and is also not entirely correct (note the use of “perfect” democracy).

Option (d) is wrong as “tyranny” is too extreme.

Best is option (b).


35.In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 30 or less
  4. 30 or more

Sol. Ans.(d). There are total 120 persons in the group.

Out of which 80 are Indian and rest i.e., 40 are foreigner.

70 persons can speak in English.

Case I: Even if all the foreigner are English speaking persons. 70 – 40 = 30 English speaking persons will be from India.

Case II: If all the English-speaking persons are from India. Then 70 English speaking persons will be from India

So, in the group English Speaking persons from India can be vary in the range of 30 to 70.


36.Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum.

Which of the following is/are correct ?

  1. S is always divisible by 74.
  2. S is always divisible by 9.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(c). As per the information given in question let the three digits are 3a, 3b, 3c. Total six number can be formed using three digits


So, we get S = 666 (a + b + c), which is both divisible by 9 and 74.


37.There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from Class-A to Class-B.

Consider the following statements :

  1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease.
  2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(a).

Some rules related to average –

  1. Average of any data lies between maximum and minimum value
  2. If some data of average equal to the average of actual data is added/removed, then there will be no effect on the average of whole data.
  3. If some data of average less than the average of actual data is added/removed, then there average of the actual will decrease/increase.
  4. If some data of average greater than the average of actual data is added/removed, then there average of the actual will increase/decrease.

In our case -

  1. The average of group B will lie between 30 and 22.
  2. The four persons added will have averages less than or equal to 21.
  3. So we can say that the four person shifted to group will definitely have average less than the group average.
  4. So, by shifting these four people the average of group B will definitely come down.
  5. But we are not sure of group A, if the four person which are shifted will be of average value of group, there will be no change in the group average. If they will be of above average, the group average will reduce and if they will be of below average the group average will increase.

38.Consider two Statements and a Question :

Statement-1 : Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom.

Statement-2 : Ena is 2 ranks above Seema and is 37th from the bottom.

Question : What is Seema's rank from the top in the class of 40 students ?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

  1. Statement-1 alone is not sufficient answer the Question
  2. Statement-2 alone is answer the Question
  3. Either Statement-1 Statement-2 alone is answer the Question
  4. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

Sol. Ans.(c).

Both the statements individually are sufficient to answer the question.

Statement I: In a class of 40 students Priya is 31st from the bottom. It means that she is 40 – 31 + 1 = 10th rank from the top. Seema is four ranks above Priya. So, Seema will be on 6th rank from the top. Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: In a class of 40 students Ena is 37th from the bottom. It means that she is 40 – 37 + 1 = 4th rank from top. Seema is 2 ranks below Ena. So, Seema will be on 6th rank. Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.


39.Consider two Statements and a Question :

Statement-1 : Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest.

Statement-2 : A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C.

Question : Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E ?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

  1. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
  2. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
  3. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
  4. Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Sol. Ans.(a). Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E?

Statement 1 alone: B, E, F < D, A < C. So statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 2 alone: No information of B and E is given, hence cannot be sufficient alone.


40.In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order; and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter?

  1. N
  2. T
  3. H
  4. I

Sol. Ans.(b). Alphabet as per new arrangement given in question -


Shortcut- 4th letter to the right of the 13th letter will be 17th letter. But according to new arrangement at this place the 20th letter of the original English Alphabet will be there, which is T.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers' to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

Nothing can exist in a natural state which can be, called good or bad by common assent, since, every man who is in, a natural state -consults only'his own advantage, and determines what is good or bad according to his own fancy and insofar as he has regard for his own advantage alone, and holds himself responsible to no one save himself by any law; and therefore sin cannot be conceived in a natural -state, but only in a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state.

41. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

  1. The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.
  2. Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no man would be morally right.
  3. Man is inherently immoral and selfish in a natural state.
  4. The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Definition of sin as a necessary product of a civil state, not present in nature

Option (b) is wrong, as in the natural state the concept of sin does not even exist!

Option (c) is wrong, as man’s natural state of being is natural, not immoral or selfish or anything else.

Option (d) is wrong as man existed in natural state also, without any definition of right or wrong (or “sin”). Human species survived.

Hence, (c).


Passage — 2

In the immediate future, we will see the increasing commodification of many new technologies -- artificial intelligence and robotics, 3D manufacturing, custom made biological and pharmaceutical products, lethal autonomous weapons and driverless cars. This will pose conundrums. The moral question of how a driverless car will decide between hitting a jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car has often been debated. The answer is both simple —save the human life — and complex. At which angle should the car swerve — just enough to save the jaywalker or more 'than enough ? If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would take the decision ? The Irish Government, or the car's original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced ? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritising a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones?

42.Which of the following statements best reflect the rational, plausible and practical implications that can be derived from the passage given above?

  1. Too much globalization is not in the best interests of any country.
  2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economic borders.
  3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the State.
  4. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the State.
  5. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply chains.
  6. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. 1, 4 and 5 only
  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Transnational understanding of human life and its value, in an age of commodification of technology

Check all five statements one by one. Statement 1 is definitely wrong, as technology is spreading and nations are not stopping it. If “globalization of technology” would be so bad, nations would have stopped it already.

So 1 is not a rational implication.

So three options are ruled out – (a), (b) and (d).


Passage — 3

The resolution of bankruptcy cases of Indian banks under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code should help bring non-performing assets (NPA) situation under some control. Despite the slow pace of resolutions by the National Company Law Tribunal, the Code can be helpful in cleaning up bank books in future credit cycles. The recapitalisation of public sector banks too can help increase. the capital cushion' of banks and induce them to lend more and boost economic activity. But bad debt resolution and recapitalisation are only a part of the solution as they, by themselves, can do very little to rein in reckless lending that has pushed the Indian banking system to its current sorry state. Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system.

43. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above?

  1. Lending by the banks should be closely monitored and regulated by the Central Government.
  2. Interest rates should be kept low so as to induce barks to lend more, promote credit growth and thereby boost economic activity.
  3. Merger of many banks into a few large banks alone is the long-term solution to make them viable and prevent their bad performance.
  4. Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem.

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Bad loans problem of Indian banking and solutions

Options (b) and (c) are clearly not correct, as they are not mentioned anywhere in the passage.

Option (a) and (d) look like good suggestions.

Option (a) is finally ruled out as it talks of monitoring y central government, whereas that is not mentioned anywhere (and anyway that job would be of the RBI).

Option (d) is best.


Passage — 4

In India, thee objective of macroeconomic policy is to enhance the economic welfare of the people, and any one wing of such macro, policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without active support of another.

44.Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the passage given above?

  1. The central bank cannot work independently of the Government.
  2. Government should regulate financial markets and institutions closely.
  3. Market economy is not compatible with the socialist policies of the Government.
  4. Financial sector reforms are required for enhancing the economic welfare of the people.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Fiscal and Monetary wings are both needed for macroeconomic welfare

Options (b), (c) and (d) are not correct, as the passage talks about coordination between the monetary (central bank) and the fiscal (government).

Hence best option is (a).


45.Consider the following Table:


Who is the fastest run scorer in the Test Match?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Sol. Ans.(b). B is the fastest run scorer, who has scored 0.56 runs per ball.


B is the fastest run scorer, who has scored 0.56 runs per ball.


46.Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 years of age. Which one of the following statements is certainly correct ?

  1. All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.
  2. Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.
  3. Only half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.
  4. No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.

Sol. Ans.(b). Given –

Villagers having own houses – 50%

Villagers cultivate paddy – 20%

Literate villagers = 33.33%

Villagers under 25 years of age = 80%

From the above information –

Option (1) – All the villagers having their own houses (50%) cannot be literate, because there are only 33.33% literate villagers. So even if all theses 33.3% literate villagers will their own houses, there will 50 – 33.33 = 16.66% villagers will be illiterate house owners.

Option (2) – Percentage of villagers under 25 years of age = 80%, Literate villagers = 33.33%. There will always be minimum (33.33% - 20% =) 13.33% of the villagers will be there who will be literate and under 25 years of age both. For maximum this value can be 33.33%. So, option (2) is true

Option (3) – We can’t say surely about how many villagers who have cultivated paddy are literate. This value can be in range of 0% to 20%.

Option (4) – This statement is not correct as there will be minimum 80% - 50% = 30% house owner will be under 25 years of age. To maximum this value can be 50%.


47.Consider two Statements and a Question:

Statement-1 : The last day of the month is a Wednesday.

Statement-2 : The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day.

Question : What day is the fourteenth of the given month ?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

  1. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
  2. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
  3. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question
  4. Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Sol. Ans.(b). Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given month?

Desired number = (Least multiple of four digit of LCM of 3, 4 and 5) + 2

Statement 1 – The last day of the given month is a Wednesday. But we don’t know which day is it 31st or 30th or 28th or 29th. If 31st day is Wednesday day, 14th day would be Sunday. But if 30th day is Wednesday, 14th day would be Monday. So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 2 – “The third Saturday of the month was 17th day” means “17th day of the month is a Saturday” and 14th day of this month will be Wednesday, we can surely say. So statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. Ans.(b)


48.Which day is 10th October, 2027 ?

  1. Sunday
  2. Monday
  3. Tuesday
  4. Saturday

Sol. Ans.(a). October 10, 2027 is which of the week?

October 10, 2021 is Sunday (Base date for calculation)


So, total number of odd days = 7

October 10, 2027 would Sunday + 7 days = Sunday. Ans.(a)


49.Consider two Statements and four Conclusions given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement-1 : Some greens are blues.

Statement-2 : Some blues are blacks.

Conclusion-1 : Some greens are blues.

Conclusion-2: No green is black.

Conclusion-3 : All greens are blacks.

Conclusion-4 : All blacks are greens.

Which one of the following is correct?

  1. Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 only
  2. Conclusion-2 and Conclusion-3 only
  3. Conclusion-3 and Conclusion-4 only
  4. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4

Sol. Ans.(d). Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4 follows.


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From the above Venn Diagram, it is evident that neither statement 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4 is follows.


50.What is the value of 'X' 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822 ?

  1. 603
  2. 605
  3. 607
  4. 608

Sol. Ans.(c).

2 × 3 + 1 = 7; 7 × 3 + 1 = 22; 22× 3 + 1 = 67; 67 × 3 + 1 = 202; 202 × 3 + 1 = 607; 607 × 3 + 1 = 1822.

Ans.(c)


Directions for the following 2 (two) items :

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

The best universities like Harvard and MIT, despite having the luxury of having some truly excellent teachers on their payroll, are increasingly embracing the "flipped classroom" format, where students listen to video lectures at home, and spend class time applying their knowledge, solving problems, discussing examples, etc. Professors guide that discussion and fill in wherever necessary, explaining those bits that seem to be eluding the students and throwing in advanced ideas that happen to be topical. These universities have made their video lectures available free for anyone in the world. They are also encouraging colleges and universities all over the world to integrate these online courses into their own pedagogy, picking the pieces that are appropriate for their needs and building a package around them.

51.Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

  1. Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared , to conventional method.
  2. Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.
  3. We need not invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital.
  4. Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Top universities adopt the “flipped classroom” model

Option (a) is wrong as the model is a blended one, not purely online.

Option (b) is good. That is what’s happening here.

Option (c) is tangential and vague.

Option (d) is incorrect due to “coaching institutes” (not mentioned in passage).


Passage — 2

Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts. Our cities contribute to 65 per cent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to cater to the needs of the people. It is important to address the 'issues of air quality, transport, etc., that are vital to identifying sustainable solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that meets the needs of the people.

52. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?

  1. Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.
  2. Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to sustainable development.
  3. To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.
  4. Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for the infrastructure and sustainability problems of India.

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Cities facing climate change problems

If you check all four options, you find that they are quite close to each other. In such a case, choose the most generalized one.

That will be option (c).


53.Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 pens and 5 pencils, and Vijay bought 2 pens and 7 pencils, then which one of the following is correct ?

  1. A pencil costs more than a pen
  2. The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen
  3. The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil
  4. The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil

Sol. Ans.(c).

Let the cost of a pen = x and cost of one pencil = y

Then, according to question, we have

3x + 5y = 2x + 7y => x = 2y.

So, we can say that the cost of a pen is double that of pencil. Ans.(c)


54.P scored 40 marks more than Q in an examination. If Q scored 10% less marks than P, then how much did Q score?

  1. 360
  2. 380
  3. 400
  4. 420

Sol. Ans.(a). Let Q scored x marks, then marks scored by P = x + 40

As per information given in question, we have ---- (x+40) × 0.9 = x => x = 360.

Short-cut - Let P scored 100% marks then Q scored 90% marked.

According to question -- 10% of P’s marks = 40

Q scores = 40 × 9 = 360.


55.A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, "If Y gives Rs. 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z, but if Z gives Rs. 40, then three of us will have equal amount." What is the total amount of money that X, Y and Z have ?

  1. Rs. 420
  2. Rs. 360
  3. Rs. 300
  4. Rs. 270

Sol. Ans.(b). Let Y have Rs. y.

According to questions X must have Rs. (y – 40) and Z must have Rs. (y + 40) (When Z gives Rs. 40 to X, all three have equal amount of money)


Money with X = y – 40 = 120 – 40 = 80

Money with Z = y + 40 = 120 + 40 = 160

So, total money with X, Y and Z = 80 + 120 + 160 = Rs. 360


56.In a code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as `LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is `CHEMISTRY' written in that code language?

  1. DIDLHRSSX
  2. BIDNHTSSX
  3. BIDLHTSSX
  4. DGFLIRUQZ

Sol. Ans.(b). M is coded by one letter back i.e. L, A is coded by one letter ahead i.e., B, T is coded by one letter back i.e., S and so on.

So the code for CHEMISTRY will be BIDNHTSSX.


57.At: which one of the following times, do the hour hand and then minute hand of the clock make an angle of 180° with each other ?

  1. At. 7:00 hours
  2. Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours
  3. At 7:05 hours
  4. Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours

Sol. Ans.(d). Angle between minute and hour hand can be given by below formula

θ=11/2 M~30H, where θ = angle between minute hand and hour hand, M = value of minutes, H = value of hours.

In our case θ = 180°, M = ?, H = 7, by putting these values in the above formula we have M = 5 5/11

The minute hand and hour hand of a clock will form 180° angle at 7:05 5/11.


58.In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. What is the number of incorrect responses?

  1. 9
  2. 13
  3. 27
  4. 43

Sol. Ans.(a). Let the number of correct questions = R and number of incorrect questions = W By the condition given in question, we have R + W = 90 and 5R – 2W = 387, by solving these two equations consecutively we get R = 81 and W = 9.

Short-cut method: Working backwards from options - Option 1, if number incorrect questions = 9, then number of correct questions 90 – 9 = 81.

So obtained marks 81 × 5 – 9 × 2 = 387, which matches with the information given in question. Hence option (a) is correct. Ans.(a)


59.Consider the following addition problem : 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all suet. possible sums ?

  1. 102
  2. 120
  3. 202
  4. 220

Sol. Ans.(c).

By putting different values of P (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 0) we find that the condition given in questions is true only for the value P = 3 and 8.

Which gives us sums of 142 and 262 respectively.

Required Arithmetic Mean = (142 + 262)/2 = 202


60.Consider the following multiplication problem :

(PQ) x 3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R ≠ 0.

What is the value of (P + R) ÷ Q?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Sol. Ans.(b). Given PQ × 3 = RQQ

Q × 3 = Q or 1Q ---- only possible for Q = 5

So, Q = 5

P5 × 3 = R55

15 × 3 = 45, 25 × 3 = 75, 35 × 3 = 105, 45× 3 = 135, 55 × 3 = 165, 65 × 3 = 195, 75 × 3 225, 85 × 3 = 255 and 95 × 3 = 285.

So, P = 8 and R = 2.

(P + R)/Q = (8+2)/5 = 2


Directions for the following 2 (two) items :

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

Can a democracy avoid being a welfare state for long? Why cannot mass welfare be left entirely to the markets? There is a built-in tension between markets and democracy. Markets do not work on a one-person-one-vote principle as democracies do. What one gets out of the market place depends on one's endowments, skills, purchasing power and the forces of demand and supply. Markets reward individual initiative and skill, and may also lift many from the bottom rungs of society, but some people never get the opportunity to develop skills that markets demand; they are simply too poor and too handicapped; or skill formation takes too long. By creating jobs, markets may be able to help even unskilled people, but capitalism has always witnessed bursts of unemployment.

61. . With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. Modern democracies rely on the market forces to enable them to be welfare states.
  2. Markets ensure sufficient economic growth necessary for democracies to be effective.
  3. Government programmes are needed for those left behind in economic growth. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans.(b). Theme of passage – Democracies, Welfare states, Markets and why some are left behind

Statement 1 is completely wrong! That is not said anywhere in the passage.

Statement 2 is definitely wrong, and contrary to what’s written in the passage.

Statement 3 is correct. Those at the bottom of the pyramid cannot be lifted without govt. help.


Passage — 2

In our schools, we teach our children all that is there to know about physics, maths and history and what-have-you. But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the spectre of famine that stalks large parts of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc.? Equally important, do we teach them to ask questions, or do we teach them only to passively receive our wisdom? From the cocooned world of school, suddenly, the adolescent finds himself/herself in the unfettered world of university. Here he/she is swept up in a turmoil of ideas, influences and ideologies. For someone who has been discouraged from asking questions and forming an opinion, this transition can be painful.

62.Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage given above?

  1. School curriculum is not compatible with the expectations of children and parents.
  2. Emphasis on academic achievements does give time for development of personality and skills.
  3. Preparing the children to be better citizens should be the responsibility of the education system.
  4. To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content.

Sol. Ans.(d). Theme of passage – Questioning attitude is key to survival but education system failing there

Both options (c) and (d) are correct, but (d) is much better.

Option (a) is wrong, as expectations of parents are not clarified anywhere

Option (b) is clearly wrong.


63.There are three points P, Q and R on a straight line such that PQ :QR 3 : 5. If n is the number of possible values of PQ : PR, then what is n equal to?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Sol. Ans.(b). There are two ways possible for PQ : QR = 3 : 5

Case I –


Case II –


In this case PQ : PR = 3 : 5


64.On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals along a straight path?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 12

Sol. Ans.(b).

Chess-board is basically a square shaped object. Diagonals would be along D1a to D1h and D2a to D2h


Six consecutive points can be selected in

  1. D1a to D1f
  2. D1b to D1g
  3. D1c to D1h
  4. D2a to D2f
  5. D2b to D2g
  6. D2c to D2h

65.In the series _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab; fill in the six blanks ( _ ) using one of the following given four choices such that the series follows a specific order.

  1. bababa
  2. baabba
  3. bbaabb
  4. ababab

Sol. Ans.(d). The order is abb aab abb aab abb aab


66.Using 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?

  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 9
  4. 12

Sol. Ans.(b). Numbers greater than 30,000 will have all the given five digits 2, 2, 3, 3, 3.

First digit will always be 3. So for remaining four digits we have four numbers remaining 2, 2, 3, 3

Which can be arranged 4!/(2!×2!) = 6 ways. Ans.(b)


67.Consider the following statements :

  1. The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100.
  2. The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be equal to their sum.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(c).

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Let the five consecutive natural numbers are n, n+1, n+2, n+3, n+4 and n+5.

n + n+1 + n+2 + n+3 + n + 4 = 100 => 5n + 10 = 100 => 5n = 90 => n = 90/5 => n = 18.

So, such consecutive integers whose sum is equal to 100 are 18, 19, 20, 21, 22. Statement 1 is correct

Statement 2 = If a = 1, b = 2 and c = 3, then a×b×c = a + b + c. So statement 2 is also correct.


68.A cubical vessel of side 1 m is filled completely with water. How many millilitres of water is contained in it (neglect thickness of the vessel)?

  1. 1000
  2. 10000
  3. 100000
  4. 1000000

Sol. Ans.(d). 1 m = 100 cm.

Volume of cube = 1000000 cm 3

1000 cm 3 = 1 litre

Vessel can contain 1000000/1000 = 1000 litres of water.

In milliliters: 1 litre = 1000 mililiters

So, Vessel can contain = 1000×1000 = 1000000 mililitres of water.


69.There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the handshakes take place ?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Sol. Ans.(b). Let five persons P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 P6 are arranged in a row.

As per the conditions given in question, another person Q can either shake hands with

  1. P1, P3 and P5
  2. P2, P4 and P6
  3. P1, P4 and P6
  4. P1, P3 and P6

Short-cut – _HS1 _ HS2 _ HS3 _ . The four places available on both sides of the persons with whom hand is shaken can be filled by 3 persons in 4C3 = 4 ways. (HS – Hand Shake)


70.An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p : q : r. Consider the following statements :

  1. A gets the maximum share if p is greater than (q + r).
  2. C gets the minimum share if r is less than (p + q).

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(a). Only statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 – Let, p = 5, then q and r can have values like (4, 1), (1,4), (2, 3) (3, 2) in any case P will have maximum value.

Statement 2 – Let, p = 1, q = 3 and r = 2. r < (p + q), but not minimum. So 2 is not correct.


Directions for the following 3 (three) items :

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

Medieval merchants risked the hazards of the Silk Road to reach the markets of China; Portuguese caravels in the 15th century sailed beyond the bounds of the known world;: searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. Historically, the driver for opening frontiers has always been the search for resources. Science and curiosity are weaker drivers. The only way to open up space, whether the space of solar system or interstellar space is to create an economic engine and that engine is resource extraction.

71.Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage given above ?

  1. Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavour.
  2. Space, whether space in solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.
  3. Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers principally by economic considerations.
  4. Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behaviour of some men.

Sol. Ans.(c). Theme of passage – Motivations for humans to explore more

Clearly, options (b) and (d) are not correct.

Between (a) and (c), option (c) sums up the passage much better.


Passage — 2

"……… most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong, except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate."

72.The idea which the first part of the passage mentions is

  1. agreement about telling lies.
  2. disagreement about telling lies.
  3. disagreement about telling the truth.
  4. disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.

Sol. Ans.(a). Theme of passage – Telling truths and lies

The first part tells us that there is an agreement about telling lies, when truth would do more harm.


73.Which one of the following habits is found more often in good people ?

  1. Mixing up the true and false
  2. Intentional mixing up of truth with the false
  3. Falsification of facts
  4. Complete concealment of truth

Sol. Ans.(b). Theme of passage – Telling truths and lies

The passage clearly indicates in second half that good people (most truthful people) also intentionally mix truth with lies.


74.A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements h the human body. Given that proteins correspond to 16% and water corresponds to 70%. If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to p%, then what is the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram?

  1. 54°
  2. 96°
  3. 108°
  4. 120°

Sol. Ans.(c).

All segments in a Pie diagram add up to 100%. 16% = Protein; 70% = Water (Given). So, 100 – (70 + 16) = 14% = Other dry elements.

According to question, p% = Protein + other dry elements = 16 + 14 = 30%

In Pie diagram 100% = 360°. So 30% = 360/100×30 = 108°. Ans.(c)


75.Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of them met at the club on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again?

  1. Monday
  2. Wednesday
  3. Thursday
  4. Sunday

Sol. Ans.(b). Wednesday.

LCM of 24, 9 and 5 = 360. It means that they will 360 days after that Sunday. We know that after every 7th day the same day of week will be there. 360 divided by 7 gives us remainder of 3 which means on 357th day there was Sunday. On 360th day there will be Wednesday.


76.The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54.

Consider the following statements :

  1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is known.
  2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(b). Let the two digits of the number are a (tens digit) and b (units digits). So the value of the number formed = 10a + b.

The value of the number formed by interchanging the digits = 10b + a

According to questions 10a + b – (10b + a) = 54 => 10a + b – 10b – a = 54 => 10a – a + b – 10 b = 54

=> 9a – 9b = 54 => 9(a – b) = 54 => (a-b) = 54/9 = 6. So, statement 2 is true.

Statement 1 is not true, because of the use of the words ‘only if’. For example, you can find the value of sum of the digits even if the value of any one of the digits is known.


77.X said to Y, "At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present." If the present age of X is 42 years, then consider the following statements :

  1. 8 years ago, the age of X was five times the age of Y.
  2. After 14 years, the age of X would be two times the age of Y.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans.(b). Let the present age of Y = p years.

Present age of X = 42 years (Given)

Age of X at the time of Y’s birth = 42 – p

As per the condition given in question, we have

42 – p = 2p => 3p = 42 => p = 14

Now, Present age of Y = 14, present age of X = 42

8 years ago, Y = 6 and X = 34. Hence 1 is not true.

16 years later Y = 28, X = 56. Hence 2 is true.


78.If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25%, then what is the net change in the price?

  1. 0%
  2. 5% increase
  3. 5% decrease
  4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Sol. Ans.(a). Let, initially the price = 100.

Price when decreased by 20% = 80

Price when this new price is increased by 25% = 80 + 25% of 80 = 80 + 20 = 100. So, net change is 0%. Ans.(a)


79.When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111...). What is the smallest such number?

  1. 15713
  2. 15723
  3. 15783
  4. 15873

Sol. Ans.(d). Working backwards from the options. Only option (d) gives 15873 × 7 = 111111. Ans.(d)


80.A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it take him to finish the job if quantum of work is further increased by 50%?

  1. 24
  2. 21
  3. 18
  4. 15

Sol. Ans.(d). Let the man works at the rate of m units per day. Work completed in 21 days will 21m units. Which is 7/8 of total amount of work, so total amount of work = 21m × 8/7 = 24 m.

Quantum of work is further increased by 50%. So new amount of work = 24m + 12m = 36m units

Out of which 21m are completed. So, remaining work 36m – 21m = 15m units

This work will be completed by the man (working with m units/day) in 15m/m = 15 days. Ans.(d)



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