BIRD'S EYEVIEW
  • The CSAT had become qualifying from 2015, and so many were relaxed about it. That could be a mistake in case you took it very lightly.
  • Overall, CSAT was not an easy paper. You had to be either very good at reading comprehension (Hindi or English, not only English), or at basic Maths and Reasoning. If you struggle with both, this paper would be a nightmare.
  • There were again, no questions were asked on Decision Making.
  • The distribution of questions across topics was –28 questions on Mathematics and Basic Numeracy, 27 questions on Reading Comprehension and 25 questions on Logical and Analytical Reasoning.
  • While many questions in Maths and Basic Numeracy needed simple formula application or basic drawing out of the problem situation or simple logic, some were not straight.
  • Same for Logical and Analytical Reasoning. One set of 5 questions was a sitter, and must have been cracked to score high. Some sets were not easy.
  • The Reading Comprehension questions (mirror copy in English and Hindi) were excellent! Overall 27 questions spread over 17 passages (all small size). But many options were tricky, especially in the “implied” questions.
  • The CSAT paper 2016 was of a high quality if you look at the Reading Comprehension questions. This year, the RC passages were very clearly focused on three themes – (1) Ecology and environment (including agriculture and food related issues), (2) Governance and its problems (reflecting the approach of the present government), and (3) Cleanliness, Issues of Justice etc.  There were 17 passages in all – 13 with single questions and 4 with more than one question each.
  • The quality of these passages was very good, and each question forced one to think carefully. However, the task was made very easy by the options. Unlike some questions in Paper I – GS, the options here in CSAT were not too closely placed. That made deciphering the right answer easy. We think this is a good approach, as it makes even a qualifying paper worth preparing for. It is no cakewalk at all. The UPSC wants to impress upon the students the need to be very aware of these pressing issues which are defining the national discourse.
  • Overall, some practice is indeed required for the CSAT. You cannot just assume you’ll breeze through it without any preparation.

     


TOPICWISE DISTRIBUTION

CSE Prelims 2016 - Paper II - CSAT
Topic No. of questions 
Basic Numeracy and Maths 28
Reading Comprehension
(Total 17 passages/caselets)
27
Logical and Analytical Reasoning 25
Visual Reasoning 0
Data Interpretation 0
Decision Making 0
TOTAL 80

     

DETAILED QUESTIONWISE SOLUTIONS (Set C)

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following eight passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.

1. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes r are urgently needed
(b) Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present
(d) We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector

Sol. Ans (c) Theme : Crony capitalism and governance issues - In the passage, the first line “By killing transparency .......” clearly indicates that greater transparency in the functioning of the government is needed. India is a growing economy, and crony capitalism can harm rapid economic growth. A “corollary” is a proposition that follows from a proven one. Hence option (c) is correct.


Passage - 2

Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information series. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.

2. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries
(b) Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation
(c) Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation
(d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development ptions

Sol. Ans (d) Theme : Climate adaptation and development concerns - Only option (d) sounds sensible, complete and not extreme. Option (a) is wrong. Option (b) is not mentioned anywhere. Option (c) is wrong. Hence option (d) is correct.


Passage - 3

Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.

3. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(a) biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water
(b) We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves
(d) Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle

Sol. Ans (a) Theme : Biodiversity and hydrology - Passage says “water and biodiversity are interdependent”. Options (c) and (d) are not wrong, but they are not related to the question. Option (b) is an extreme one. Hence option (a) is correct, and is the best critical inference drawn.


Passage - 4

In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man

4. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?

(a) Need for more automation and more products of bank
(b) Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system
(c) Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions
(d) Need to promote financial inclusion

Sol. Ans (d) Theme : Banking sector and automation - The last line of passage “Today there is a need for a new ........ that does not exclude the common man” implies that need to promote “financial inclusion”. Also, the passage speaks of existing products serving the upper middle and middle classes. Hence, (d) is the best answer.


Passage - 5

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to  women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, ones to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the  use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.

5. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only
2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans (b) Theme : Sanitation and manual scavenging - Obviously statement 1 is wrong as nothing is guaranteed regarding “fully solved”. Statement 2 is obviously implied in the passage. Hence option (b) is correct.


Passage - 6

To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every  individual, impel the whole of them into society.

6. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage ?

(a) Nature has created a great diversity in human society
(b) Any given human society is always short of its wants
(c) Social life is a specific characteristic of man
(d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system

Sol. Ans (d) Theme : Man’s nature and appropriate government - Option (a) is not mentioned anywhere even indirectly. Option (b) is not correct as individuals may be short of fulfiling their own wants, but society may be able to (that is why people come together in a society). Option (c) is an obvious truth. But it may be true for other animals also. Option (d) is the best inference.


Passage - 7

The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.

7. The statement refers to:

(a) the antithesis of Politics and Economics
(b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics
(c) the predominance of Economics over Politics
(d) the predominance of Politics over Economics

Sol. Ans (b) Theme : Politics and economics in a society - Structure of legal systems in a society depend on what people demand over time. Demands depend on the manner of distribution of economic power in the society. State controls the society. So, the relationship of politics (State) and economics is being studied. Best answer is (b). The passage is not making out any one of these are dominant over the other.


Passage - 8

About 15 percent of global  greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Foresty and use, and land-use change account for another percent of greenhouse gas emissions each ear, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.

8. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Organic farming should immediately replace mechanised and chemical dependant agricultural practices all over the world
(b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change.
(c) There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration

Sol. Ans (b) Theme : Agriculture and greenhouse gas emissions - Option (a) being an extreme one, can be rejected. Option (b) is clearly spoken of. Option (c) is wrong. Best answer is (b).


9. A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point 'O' on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point 'A' after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point 'A' he moves to point 'B' in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point 'O'?

(a) 7 km
(b) 13 km
(c) 17 km
(d) 11 km

Sol. Ans (b)

10. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length x1 meters and breadth x2 meters (x1 and x2 are variable). If x1 + x2 = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?

(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m

Sol. Ans (a) Area of the field will be maximum when both sides of rectangle are equal. This is a basic mathematical theorem. “will not exceed” in the question means “what is the maximum possible”. Therefore x1 = x2 = 20 meters (because x1 + x2 = 40 is given). Max. Area = 20 × 20 = 400 sq. m.


CONGRATULATIONS! PT's IAS Academy had covered nearly all these questions in some form or the other in our CSAT preparation module. All reading comprehension passages were covered at length in the GS lectures, especially the ones on Environment and Ecology, Biomass, Agriculture and Food Security etc. The aptitude portion was covered at length separately. We are sure our students will crack this too. All the best for Mains!

11. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby ?

(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months

Sol. Ans (b)


12. The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:

(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11

Sol. Ans (d)


13. A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps doe he ladder have?

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11

Sol. Ans (b) Person is standing on first step and middle step is 4 step ahead. Therefore middle step is the 5th step. Now top step will also be 4 step ahead of the middle step.
Top step = 5 + 4 = 9 steps
Total no. of steps in the ladder = 9.


Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order Kumar and Singh.

Further, we know that :
1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater
2. C wore a tie
3. Singh's garment was not white
4. Kumar does not wear a jacket
5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour
6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour

14. What is C's surname ?

(a) Ribeiro
(b) Kumar
(c) Singh
(d) Cannot be determined

Sol. Ans (a)


15. What is the colour of the tie ?

(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Cannot be determined

Sol. Ans (b)


16. Who wore the sweater ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be determined

Sol. Ans (a)


17. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is:

(a) 20 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 35 m

Sol. Ans (b)


18. A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?

(a) 5 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 37 km
(d) 61 km

Sol. Ans (a)


19. A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:

(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 8

Sol. Ans (b)


20. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?

(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 11 days

Sol. Ans (c)


21. A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as:

(a) CARFTION
(b) FRACNOIT
(c) NOITCARF
(d) CARFNOIT

Sol. Ans (d) In given code, first half of the word and second half of the word are reversed.
FRACTION will be written as CARFNOIT.


22. If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?

(a) R - S is divisible by 5
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R x S is divisible by 25
(d) R2 + S2 is divisible by 5

Sol. Ans (b) If R and S are multiple of 5, then R + S may or may not be divisible by 10. To solve such questions, always take actual values and check. For example, if R = 20 and S = 15. You will see that only (b) is correct.


23. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?

(a) 110
(b) 111
(c) 112
(d) None of the above

Sol. Ans (a) Between 100 and 300, the number of numbers ending with 2 will be
102, 112, ..... 192 (Total 10)
202, 212, ..... 292 (Total 10)
Between 100 and 300, the number of numbers beginning with 2 will be
200, 201, 202, ..... 299 (Total 100) of which 10 end with 2 so subtract that.
So final answer = 100 - 10 + 10 + 10 = 110.
Hence, answer is (a). Remember either begin with or end with 2 means we cannot double count those that both begin with and end with 2. Otherwise answer will be 120 i.e. Option (d) none of the above.


Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing. world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.

24. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?

(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources
(b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries
(c) Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the health concerns
(d) From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us

Sol. Ans (a) Theme : Diet patterns in a heavily populated world - The passage is not about developing countries alone. It is about the fact that growth of population in developing countries and their choice of meat and milk as food will affect the entire world’s resources. Hence, options (c) and (d) are wrong. Option (b) speaks only about developing nations, hence ruled out. Best answer is option (a). It is the most critical message conveyed.


Passage - 2

All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.

25. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world
(b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members
(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies
(d) People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any dairy product

Sol.Ans (b) Theme : Lactose tolerance in different societies - The passage speaks about the historical background of different societies in terms of their dependence on cattle and milk, and consequent genetic changes. Options (c) and (d) are very limited, hence ruled out. Option (a) is too direct, and not an assumption. Option (b) is the best answer.


Passage - 3

"The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels."

26. In the above statement, the author implies that:

(a) the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels
(b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult
(c) no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels
(d) a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment

Sol. Ans (a) Theme : National output measurement and difficulties - All the options look correct here! Let’s analyse. Option (a) is not directly said, but is implied (suggested). So this is correct. Look at option (b). This is exactly what the author is trying to say. So this is not “implied” but stated directly. Option (a) is better than (b). Option (c) is a value judgement and can be ruled out. Option (d) is a strongly assumed statement, and can be avoided. The passage talks about conceptual difficulties in national income comparisons. Hence option (a) is the most implied answer.


Passage - 4

An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plant and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet soil In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in a plants and Earth's atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its relsase into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

27. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of microorganisms and plants
(b) Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth
(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil

Sol. Ans (d) Theme : Delicate balance of carbon between atmosphere and soil - Option (b) is clearly wrong because of “solely responsible”. Various natural processes like volcanoes do so too. Option (c) is overlooking the interdependence of these factors. Option (a) is not wrong, but is a fact, not a corollary (a proposition that follows from one already proved). Option (d) is the best corollary. As green cover grows, more carbon trapped in soil will be released.Hence option (d) is correct.


Passage - 5

Historically, the biggest Challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surplues to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, Supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of Inoger, starvation, under or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as 'a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply` of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capailities individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.

28. According to the above passage, which of, the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?

1. Setting up more agro-based industries
2. Improving the price affordability by the poor
3. Regulating the conditions of marketing
4. Providing food subsidy to one and all

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 an 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4

Sol. Ans (b) Theme - Global food production, supply, demand & poverty -The passage does not talk about setting up more agro based industries. So statement 1 is wrong. Similarly, 4 is wrong as subsidies are not mentioned. So options (a), (c) and (d) are wrong. Best answer is option (b). Surely, the passage does mention that price affordability by poor, and marketing regulation is important.


29. According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

(a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries
(b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries
(c) to achieve a balance between the production of food and non-food items
(d) to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food

Sol. Ans (d) Theme - Global food production, supply, demand & poverty - Options (a) and (c) can be ruled out right away. Option (b) mentions a fact that is not a challenge to world agriculture, but to its management. Option (d) is the key idea. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.


30. According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies ?

1. Balancing demand and supply of food
2. Increasing imports of food
3. creasing purchasing power of the poor
4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Global food production, supply, demand & poverty - Statement 4 is not mentioned as a definite policy goal. So options (b) and (d) are eliminated. Both 1 and 3 are clearly stated. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.


31. The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of:

1. overgrowth of the population worldwide
2. sharp decline in the area of food production
3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans (b) Theme - Global food production, supply, demand & poverty - Surprisingly, 1 and 2 both are not stated directly. Only statement 3 is relevant to passage. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.


32. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further,

1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place

How many different numbers can be formed?

(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) None of the above

Sol. Ans (a) From the given conditions, for the four positions available :
1 cannot come at the first place. So 2, 3 and 4 can appear there.
4 cannot come at the last place. So 1, 2 and 3 can appear there.
2 and 3 cannot immediately follow each other. So 23 and 32 is not allowed.
1 cannot be immediately followed by 3. So 13 is not allowed.
Let us list the possible numbers now -
2431 --- possible, does not violate any condition
2143 --- possible, does not violate any condition
3142 --- possible, does not violate any condition
3412 --- possible, does not violate any condition
3421 --- possible, does not violate any condition
4312 --- possible, does not violate any condition
Hence, answer is (a). Total 6 numbers are possible.


33. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5m x 4m x 6m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?

(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/6

Sol. Ans (a)


34. In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is:

(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 3

Sol. The number of girls is twice that of boys in a class of 60 students. Hence number of girls is 40 and boys is 20.
Now, Kamal is seventeenth from the top. Therefore there are 16 students ahead of Kamal out of which 9 girls, and so 7 are boys (16 - 9 = 7).
Therefore 20 – 7 – 1 (himself) = 12 boys will be ranked after Kamal. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Ans (b)


35. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respecely. How many times shall they cross each other after 8 00 a.m. and before 9.30. a.m.?

(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

Sol. Ans (a)


36. W can do 25% of a work-in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?

(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z

Sol. Ans (d)


37. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?

(a) Rs. 12,000
(b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 34,000

Sol. Ans (a) Average monthly income = Rs.10,000
So, total monthly income of the family of 5 = Rs.50,000
If one person's income increases by Rs.1,20,000 per year, his/her monthly income increases by Rs.10,000.
So, total monthly income now becomes = Rs.60,000
So, average monthly income now becomes 60/5 = Rs.12,000.
Hence, answer is (a).


38. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line On a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart ?

(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 75 m
(d) 150 m

Sol. Ans (d)


39. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability, that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?

(a) 0.40
(b) 0.20
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.04

Sol. Ans (c)


40. A person allows 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?

(a) Rs. 610
(b) Rs. 620
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 640

Sol. Ans (c)


CONGRATULATIONS! PT's IAS Academy had covered nearly all these questions in some form or the other in our CSAT preparation module. All reading comprehension passages were covered at length in the GS lectures, especially the ones on Environment and Ecology, Biomass, Agriculture and Food Security etc. The aptitude portion was covered at length separately. We are sure our students will crack this too. All the best for Mains!

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the ---Central-Vigilance Commission-and-Comptroller and Auditor—General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.

Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should he defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.

41. According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?

1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Civil services and accountability issues - - Only option (d) sounds sensible, complete and not extreme. Option (a) is wrong. Option (b) is not mentioned anywhere. Option (c) is wrong. Hence option (d) is correct.


42. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans (d) Ans (d) Theme - Civil services and accountability issues - - Statement 1 is clearly wrong, and is not explicitly stated. In statement 2 - The civil services can be made accountable to the society by being accountable to the political executive which was accountable to the public/society, was stated in the passage. Now that mechanism has not worked out. It does not mean the political executive is not answerable to public. Hence neither 1 nor 2 is valid. Best answer is option (d).


43. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?

(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Civil services and accountability issues - - The third option (c) is implied (indirectly hinted at)in the passage. Option (d) is clearly stated, not implied! Option (a) is a fact stated (not implied). Option (b) is not stated. Clearly, option (c) is the best answer.


44. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?

(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process

Sol. Ans (a) Theme - Civil services and accountability issues - - You will be confused between options (d) and (a). Option (d) is mentioned at the end of the passage as a means of bringing decision-making closer to people, thereby enhancing accountability. But option (a) i.e. better job security and safeguards were put in place to ensure a sense of safety, thereby delinking civil services from political processes, and hence ensuring external accountability. Best answer is option (a).


Passage - 2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; rights and duties cannot remain formal abstraction. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice.

45. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans (a) Theme - Religion, justice, communities, right & duties - - The last line makes Assumption 3 invalid. So all options are eliminated, except (a) which is the best answer.


46. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?

(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
(c) Balance between and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Religion, justice, communities, right & duties - Crux (main message) of this passage is "balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society." Best option is (c).


47. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was:

(a) Apple
(b) Pineapple
(c) Grapes
(d) Oranges

Sol. Ans (d)

B and C fell sick, and both of them ate oranges.
So, it must be the oranges which made them sick. Correct answer is option (d).


48. Consider the following statements.

1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country
2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country

Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?

(a) The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
(b) The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
(c) The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
(d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

Sol. Ans (d) It expresses the complete logic properly. Option (a) is wrong. Option (c) is wrong as per given statements. Option (b) is incomplete. Hence, option (d) is best.


49. A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?

(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

Sol. Ans (b) A simple diagram will help solve this.

Since roads are either North-South or, East-West, it can be seen that person X can reach his original location by first travelling 3 km east and then 1 km north as given in option (b).


50. Consider the following statement:
"We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking".
Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?

(a) We go for a picnic but not for trekking
(b) Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
(c) We go for trekking and not for picnic
(d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

Sol. Ans (d) The statement meant that one of those two actions were bound to happen - either picnic, or trekking. Option (d) negates both. Options (a) and (c) are correct - do not falsify the claim. Option (b) is irrelevant. Hence, best answer is option (d).


51. There were 50 faculty member comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party is was discovered that no members knew music. The conclusion is that:

(a) the party comprised male faculty members only
(b) the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
(c) the party comprised both male and female faculty members
(d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party

Sol. Ans (d) Question does not say anything about the gender composition of the group invited for party. Further, we do not know which specific female faculty knew music. So either all in party were males, or some males and some females who did not know music were present in the party. All options have some problem except (d) which is definitely correct.


52. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.

(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A

On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?

1. D is seated next to B
2. E is seated next to A
3. D and C are separated by two seats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

Sol. Ans (b) The possible arrangements are

Hence D is seated next to B and E is seated next to A. Ans (b)


53. There are five hobby clubs in a college —photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?

(a) 5
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 3

Sol. Ans (d) 5 hobby groups - photography, yachting, chess electronis and gardening.
Gardening - Meets every second day hence = 90 times in 180 days.
Electronis group meets every third day = 60 times / 180
Chess group meets every 4th day = 45 times / 180
Yachting group meets every 5th day = 36 times / 180
Photography group meets every 6th day = 30 times / 180
We have to find highest common factor of these 5 numbers 90, 60, 45, 36 and 30. It is 3. Hence option (d) is correct answer.


54. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 and 3

Sol. Ans (c) Just use the options and solve directly! Question based on simple logic. Option (c) satisfies the conditions.


Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

55. Who is the doctor?

(a) T
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) R

For Q. 55 to Q. 59

This was the easiest 5 question set, which should have been solved by all.
Straight 5 questions cracked!

P and S are unmarried students (hence not professionals), T a married man (so there is a female in this group), Q is brother of P, R is not a doctor. Q is neither a doctor nor an artist, so he must be a lawyer. R must be an Artist, so T should be a doctor (because P and S are students).

Sol. Ans (a)


CONGRATULATIONS! PT's IAS Academy had covered nearly all these questions in some form or the other in our CSAT preparation module. All reading comprehension passages were covered at length in the GS lectures, especially the ones on Environment and Ecology, Biomass, Agriculture and Food Security etc. The aptitude portion was covered at length separately. We are sure our students will crack this too. All the best for Mains!

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

56. Who is the artist?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) T

Sol. Ans (c)


Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

57. Who is the spouse of R?

(a) P
(b) T
(c) Q
(d) S

Sol. Ans (b)
T is a married man. It’s good that question was asked in reverse (who is the spouse of R - that is one more data available)


Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

58. Who is the lawyer?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Sol. Ans (b)


Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

59. Who of the following is definitely a man?

(a) P
(b) S
(c) Q
(d) None of the above

Sol. Ans (c)
Q is the “brother” of P.


60. There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?

(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 20
(d) 22

Sol. Ans (c)
Firm produces 1000 quantity per day of which 5% are unfit.
So fit quantity = 1000 - 50 = 950 per day.
So effectively the firm is producing 950 quantities / day.
Hence, it would take 20 days to produce 19000 quantities.
(20 x 950 = 19000)


Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.

Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 — 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 — 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.

Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.

61. What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation?

1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass
2. Biomass production competes with food production 3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans (d) Theme - Biomass fuels and the evolving debate on emissions -
All the three constraints are mentioned in the passage. Hence, best answer is (d).


62. Which of the following can lead to food security problem?

1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation
2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Biomass fuels and the evolving debate on emissions -The fifth line of first paragraph says "Energy crops compete with food production and have an impact on prices." Hence statement 3 is correct. Now look at the options. Options (a) is ruled out. Statement 2 speaks of using biomass for carbon capture and storage. Indeed, if this is used for emissions control, food security will be a problem. So option (c) is best.


63. In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?

1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050
2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources
3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sol. Ans (c) Theme - Biomass fuels and the evolving debate on emissions - Statement 1 is clearly wrong. So options (a) and (d) are eliminated. Statement 2 is correct. Within limits, biomass as a fuel does not disrupt food and forest resources. Statement 3 can be correct is those unproven nascent technologies work out. Hence best answer is (c).


64. With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been mad :

1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions
2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Sol. Ans (a) Assumption 1 is implicit in passage. Hence option (a) is correct. Assumption 2 is valid only if done improperly, not always.



Passage - 2

We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.

65. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run

Sol. Ans (d) Theme - Green revolution's high yield curse -
"We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing". Hence, the most logical and critical inference is option (d). Option (a) is not wrong, but that is a fact stated. Option (b) is also a fact. Option (c) may or may not be correct.


66. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:

(a) 48 minutes
(b) 50 minutes
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes

Sol. Class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm.
Total time = 207 minutes
Total rest time = 3x5 = 15 minutes
Effective time to be divided = 207 - 15 = 192 minutes
Duration of one period = 194/4 = 48 minutes
Hence, Ans (a).


67. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows : A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?

(a) 23 minutes
(b) 22 minutes
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes

Sol. Minimum time would be achieved when the fastest person would be assigned to return the lamp, who in this case is A.
Time taken by A & B = 2 minutes + 1 minute return time of A = 3 minutes
Time taken by A & C = 7 minutes + 1 minute return time of A = 8 minutes
Time taken by A & D = 10 minutes + 1 minute return time of A = 11 minutes
Time taken by A alone = 1 minute return time without lamp = 1 minute
So, Total minimum time will be 3 + 8 + 11 + 1 = 23 minutes. Ans (a).


68. 30g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar Was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is

(a) sweeter than that in C
(b) sweeter than that in A
(c) as sweet as that in C
(d) less sweet than that in C

Sol. Content of sugar in A = 30g/180 ml = 1/6 g/ml
Content of sugar in B = 40g/280 ml = 1/7 g/ml
Content of sugar in C = 20g/100 ml = 1/5 g/ml
Hence vessel C is the sweetest, followed by vessels A and B. Hence, Ans (d).


69. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?

(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 45

Sol. Total collection = Rs 443.
Total collection of the class - additional contribution = 443 - 2 = Rs 441
Every student contributed an amount equal to total number of students.
Let total number of students in the class be N. So, N 2 = 441
Hence, N = 21. Hence Ans (b).


70. Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9

Sol. Let every question carry 1 mark. So total number of marks is 70.
Therefore passing marks = 60% of 70 = 42 marks.
Anita answered 70% of Arithmetic (10 Q) = 7
40% of Algebra (30 Q) = 12
60% of Geometry (30 Q) = 18
So, Anita's total marks = 7 + 12 +18 = 37 marks which is 5 short of 42.
So 5 more marks are required to pass the exam. Hence Ans (b).


71. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 21

Sol. Let number of girls in the class be X
Number of boys in the class will be 2X (2/3 being boys, total being X + 2X = 3X)
Number of very tall boys = 3/4 * 2X = 18
So X = 12.
Hence Ans (b).


72. Consider the following statements:

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
3. B is older than C

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C

Sol. A > = B, D > = C, B > C. This implies that A > C. Hence A is older than C. Ans (d)


73. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%

Sol. Let the total number of male employees be M & that of female be F.
Total salary (males) = Rs 5200 x M
Total salary (females) = Rs 4200 x F
So, we have 5200M + 4200F = 5000 (M+F)
Solving, we get 200M = 800F
Hence, M = 4F.
Percentage of males employed = 4F/5F *100 = 80 %. Ans (b).


Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given -formation and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

74. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?

(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) None of the above

Sol. Ans (b) Given six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F. Colours are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange (not in order).
Kept from left to right (not in same order).
Six balls of cricket, hockey, tennis, gold, football and volleyball (not in same order).
As per the given information, we can try and make either an elaborate grid, and place values one by one (values will be mostly ticks and crosses initially). Positions are 1,2,3,4,5,6 from L to R.
After a few iterations, we will arrive at the answers. Or else we can simply read through the questions and realize that it is not worth the effort as elimination may be possible. Make simple relations like these.
Ball = Colour = Box = Position
Golf = Violet = Not D = . .....(1)
Tennis = Box A = Orange = 6 (full information given) .....(2)
Hockey= . = Not D, Not E = . .....(3)
Cricket = Green = Box C =. .....(4)
Hockey = NotBlue, Not Yellow = . =. .....(5)
.= .= BoxC = 2 .....(6)
Volleyball = . = Box B =. .....(7)
Now, C is next to B. So B can be 1 or 3. Let us put that in (7) to get Volleyball=.=BoxB=1or3 -----(7’)
Now, hockey is between golf and volleyball. So apply (5), (1) and (7’) together to get Box B – Hockey – Violet
Eliminate the known variables and you can easily find out that the Golf ball is in Box B. Also, Box F is painted indigo. And two possibilities remain for the colour of Box containing football, hence indeterminate.


Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given -formation and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

75. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) D is painted yellow
(b) F is painted indigo
(c) B is painted blue
(d) All of the above

Sol. Ans (b) Given six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F. Colours are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange (not in order).
Kept from left to right (not in same order).
Six balls of cricket, hockey, tennis, gold, football and volleyball (not in same order).
As per the given information, we can try and make either an elaborate grid, and place values one by one (values will be mostly ticks and crosses initially). Positions are 1,2,3,4,5,6 from L to R.
After a few iterations, we will arrive at the answers. Or else we can simply read through the questions and realize that it is not worth the effort as elimination may be possible. Make simple relations like these.
Ball = Colour = Box = Position
Golf = Violet = Not D = . .....(1)
Tennis = Box A = Orange = 6 (full information given) .....(2)
Hockey= . = Not D, Not E = . .....(3)
Cricket = Green = Box C =. .....(4)
Hockey = NotBlue, Not Yellow = . =. .....(5)
.= .= BoxC = 2 .....(6)
Volleyball = . = Box B =. .....(7)
Now, C is next to B. So B can be 1 or 3. Let us put that in (7) to get Volleyball=.=BoxB=1or3 -----(7’)
Now, hockey is between golf and volleyball. So apply (5), (1) and (7’) together to get Box B – Hockey – Violet
Eliminate the known variables and you can easily find out that the Golf ball is in Box B. Also, Box F is painted indigo. And two possibilities remain for the colour of Box containing football, hence indeterminate.


Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given -formation and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

76. The football is in the box of which colour?

(a) Yellow
(b) Indigo
(c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
(d) Blue

Sol. Ans (c) Given six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F. Colours are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange (not in order).
Kept from left to right (not in same order).
Six balls of cricket, hockey, tennis, gold, football and volleyball (not in same order).
As per the given information, we can try and make either an elaborate grid, and place values one by one (values will be mostly ticks and crosses initially). Positions are 1,2,3,4,5,6 from L to R.
After a few iterations, we will arrive at the answers. Or else we can simply read through the questions and realize that it is not worth the effort as elimination may be possible. Make simple relations like these.
Ball = Colour = Box = Position
Golf = Violet = Not D = . .....(1)
Tennis = Box A = Orange = 6 (full information given) .....(2)
Hockey= . = Not D, Not E = . .....(3)
Cricket = Green = Box C =. .....(4)
Hockey = NotBlue, Not Yellow = . =. .....(5)
.= .= BoxC = 2 .....(6)
Volleyball = . = Box B =. .....(7)
Now, C is next to B. So B can be 1 or 3. Let us put that in (7) to get Volleyball=.=BoxB=1or3 -----(7’)
Now, hockey is between golf and volleyball. So apply (5), (1) and (7’) together to get Box B – Hockey – Violet
Eliminate the known variables and you can easily find out that the Golf ball is in Box B. Also, Box F is painted indigo. And two possibilities remain for the colour of Box containing football, hence indeterminate.


77. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?

(a) 12%
(b) 10%
(c) 9%
(d) 8%

Sol. Ans (b) Let third number Z be 100.
Therefore X will be 80 & Y will be 72.
Hence Y is 10% less than X. Ans (b)


78. A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the Shuttle Service?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7

Sol. Ans (c) Journey takes 42 hours (1 day and 18 hours). So a train starting at 6 AM from one end can take return journey on third day 6 AM from other end.
Hence two trains each will required from each end is a dailyservice is required.
Hence total number of trains required will be 4. Ans (c)


79. A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:

(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 7 cm

Sol. Ans (c) Surface area of constructed cube = Area of rectangle
Hence, 6a2 = 12*8
So, a = 4 cm. Ans (c)


CONGRATULATIONS! PT's IAS Academy had covered nearly all these questions in some form or the other in our CSAT preparation module. All reading comprehension passages were covered at length in the GS lectures, especially the ones on Environment and Ecology, Biomass, Agriculture and Food Security etc. The aptitude portion was covered at length separately. We are sure our students will crack this too. All the best for Mains!

80. In a. question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices - True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:

(a) 10
(b) 18
(c) 26
(d) 32

Sol. Ans (d) We have to list the total number of cases which are distinct from each other.
Such cases will be 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 25 (basic counting property)
In all these cases, no two candidates have marked answers identically.
Hence, Maximum number of candidates is 25 = 32
What this means is that is there be a 33rd candidate, he will mark answers matching exactly 1 of the existing 32 candidates. Ans (d)


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ANSWER KEY SET C